image

Solvezone Blog

Date:13-Dec, 2018 05:27 AM
Blog Titlle:IMT Solved Assignments For All Subjects
Blog:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

MKTC 522

 

  1. Subgroups of people or markets having similar product needs
  • market
  • market place
  • market segment
  • market firm
  1. Systematic evaluation of objectives strategies structure and performance is called
  • marketing audit
  • annual audit
  • accounting audit
  • external audit
  1. The foundation of any marketing plan is the firms
  • objectives
  • mission statement
  • swot
  • market
  1. form of distribution aimed at covering selective markets
  • exclusive distribution
  • integrated distribution
  • selective distribution
  • intensive distribution
  1. gauging the extent to which marketing objectives have been achieved in a particular period
  • implementation
  • evaluation
  • opportunity
  • success
  1. constant preference of one brand over others is
  • brand equity
  • global brand
  • brand identity
  • brand loyalty
  1. governs all corporate bodies
  • foreign trade development act
  • environment protection act
  • companies act 1956
  • MRTP
  1. unprocessed extractive or agriculture products are called
  • components
  • resources
  • capital
  • raw materials
  1. process of dividing markets into identifiable groups is called
  • market
  • market segmentation
  • market service
  • market data
  1. someone’s recommendation for new restaurant is called
  • internal stimuli
  • external stimuli
  • regenerate
  • future markets
  1. refers to value of company and brand names
  • brand equity
  • global brand
  • brand loyalty
  • brand identity
  1. aggressive advertisements and price discounts to customers is called
  • market mix
  • market planning
  • market penetration
  • market place
  1. researcher selects sample based on personal judgement
  • judgement sampling
  • convience sampling
  • systemic sample
  • cluster sample
  1. marketing of goods and services to organisations is
  • consumer marketing
  • service marketing
  • business marketing
  • consumer protection
  1. business customers who consider numerous bids before selection
  • optimizers
  • initiators
  • target
  • position
  1. increased standards of living are a function of increased
  • musule power
  • bargaining power
  • purchasing power
  • horse power
  1. people in a business house involved in purchase decision
  • buying centre
  • business house
  • business place
  • business service

  Delivering a product of management in an orientation

  • place
  • social
  • production
  • product
  1. business mission statements stated narrowly suffer from
  • marketing myopia
  • marketing mix
  • target market
  • market plan
  1. persons or firms providing goods and services to organisations are called
  • sellers
  • suppliers
  • buyers
  • purchasers
  1. facilate the exchange of ownership between sellers and buyers
  • retailers
  • merchants
  • agents
  • whole sellers
  1. individualized attention to customers is
  • tangible
  • assurance
  • empathy
  • research
  1. provides a frame work for seeking environmental clearance
  • competition act
  • companies act
  • patents act
  • environment protection act
  1. concrete symbol of the service offering
  • tangible cue
  • information source
  • post purchase message
  • position
  1. a characteristic that can be assessed after use
  • credence quality
  • experience quality
  • no quality
  • search quality
  1. one that cannot be copied by the competition
  • divest
  • Experience Curve
  • competitive advantage
  • evaluation
  1. marketing several products wider same brand is
  • brand equity
  • private brand
  • brand loyalty
  • family brand
  1. decision amount of time and effort buyers invest in evaluation of purchase
  • concept
  • intervention
  • motives
  • involvement
  1. Demand forecasting helps in the
  • no markets
  • future markets
  • past markets
  • present markets
  1. the person who first suggests making a purchase
  • initiators
  • purchasers
  • buyers
  • deciders

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

IMTC 632

 

 

Set – 1

  1. SOP Stands For
  • Standard Operating Program
  • Standard Operating Procedure.
  • Standard Operations Procedure
  • Standard Operating Policy
  1. ISO 14001 is a Set of standards adopted by thousands of firms worldwide to certify that they are
  • Conducting 'Green' business practices
  • Observing all environmental laws
  • Conducting business in an environment friendly manner
  • Doing eco-friendly business
  1. In “Dialectical Enquiry” Approach Requires
  • One Proposal With Two Assumptions
  • Two Proposals With Different Assumptions
  • One Proposal With Different Assumptions
  • Many Proposals With Different Assumptions
  1. Which Industry Force Might Cause Propitious Niche To Disappear
  • Buyers
  • Government
  • Substitutes
  • Suppliers
  1. An Entry Barrier is
  • An Obstruction That Makes It Difficult For A Company To Enter An Industry
  • Physical Barrier
  • Entry Fee Is High.
  • Initial Investment Is High
  1. The 3rd Phase Of Evolvement Of Strategic Management Was
  • Financial Planning
  • Externally Oriented Strategic Planning
  • Forecast Based Planning
  • Long Term Planning
  1. Conglomerate Structure Is Appropriate For
  • MNCs
  • Multiple Product Firm
  • Firm With Many Divisions
  • Large Firm With Many Product Lines In Several Unrelated Industries
  1. Follow The Leader' Is A Strategy To
  • Follow The Rival
  • Imitate The Leader
  • Follow The Market Leader
  • Avoid
  1. Virtual Meetings Have Enabled Firms To
  • Cut Travel Budget
  • Increase Speed
  • Reduce Staff
  • Save Time
  1. In Hyper competition Can Competitive Advantage Be Sustained?
  • In Few Cases
  • Yes
  •  
  • May Be
  1. Whistle-blowing refers to policies that require employees to
  • Report defects in product
  • Unethical violations
  • Report workplace romance
  • Report indiscipline
  1. What Is Hyper competition
  • Competition In High Investment Industry
  • Competition In FMCG Industry
  • An Industry In Which Uncertainty Of Environment Makes Competitive Advantage Only Temporary
  • Cut-Throat Competition
  1. A Multidomestic Industry is a Collection of Domestic Industries Like
  • Automobiles
  • TVS
  • Tyres
  • Retailing & Insurance
  1. In Rumelt's Consonance criteria for evaluating strategies there is need for
  • Matching various objectives
  • Examining external & internal factors
  • Examining set of trends as well individual trends
  • Matching various strategies
  1. Porter's Two Generic Competitive Strategies are of
  • Acquisition & Merger
  • Product & Differentiation
  • Cost & Differentiation
  • Cost & Diversification
  1. Corporate Strategy Deals With Three Key Issues
  • Product, Price & Promotion
  • Business, Functions & Sales
  • Direction, Portfolio & Parenting
  • Portfolio, Market & Distribution
  1. The Sixth Force In Porter 's Model Is
  • Buyers
  • Suppliers
  • Variety of Stakeholders Group
  • Competitors
  1. Who is COO?
  • Chief Operations Officer.
  • Chief Operating Officer
  • Chief Operating Office
  • Central Operating Officer
  1. Ethical Responsibility Means
  • Should Do
  • Might Do
  • Have To Do.
  • Must Do
  1. Who Are Corporate Stakeholders
  • Anybody Who Is Affected By The Achievement Of Objectives Of The Firm
  • Shareholders
  • Unions
  • Employees
  1. Constant dollars are dollars adjusted for
  • Adjusted for consumer price index
  • Adjusted for inflation
  • Euros
  • Rupees
  1. TQM is an operational philosophy that stresses commitment to
  • Customer Satisfaction through Six-Sigma Program
  • Customer Satisfaction with Continuous Improvement
  • Customer Satisfaction with Quality Control
  • Customer Satisfaction with Quality Circles Teams
  1. Timing Tactics Means
  • Duration Of Strategy
  • When To Implement Strategy
  • Starting Time Of New Strategy
  • Time To End Old Strategy
  1. Strategic Management Is That Set Of Managerial Decisions & Actions By Which A Firm
  • That Determines Long term Performance of a Firm
  • Appoints New CEO
  • Makes Future Plans
  • Makes Profit.
  1. The index of sustainable growth indicates how much of the growth rate of sales can be sustained by
  • Net cash
  • Debt
  • Assets
  • Internally generated funds
  1. Number Of Stages In Corporate Development Are
  • 5
  • 3
  • 4
  • 6
  1. Competitive Scope Is Of Two Types
  • Broad & Slim
  • Wide & Narrow
  • Small & Large
  • Broad & Narrow
  1. In financial analysis adjusting for inflation is
  • on case to case basis
  • Insignificant factor
  • Depends on state of economy
  • Significant factor
  1. A Tactic Is A
  • Action Plan
  • Short Term Strategy
  • Specific Operating Plan Detailing How A Strategy Is To Be Put Into Action.
  • How To Deal With Actual Problems
  1. Common-size statements are income statements & balance sheets in which the dollar figures have been converted into
  • A common denominator
  • Rupees
  • Percentages
  • Ratios

Set – 2

  1. Network Structure Is Sometimes Called
  • Modular Structure
  • Virtual Organisation
  • Ce11ular Structure
  • Matrix Organisation
  1. In Hyper competition Can Competitive Advantage Be Sustained?
  •  
  • May Be
  • Yes
  • In Few Cases
  1. Competency Is
  • Cross Functional Integration & Coordination Of Capabilities
  • Integration Of Activities
  • Collection Of Activities That A Firm Do Exceedingly Well.
  • Ability To Work Efficiently
  1. The GDP is used worldwide to measure total output of a firm
  • From within a country's borders
  • From one SBU
  • From all its units worldwide
  • From within a continent
  1. Slow-Cycle Resources Are Those Which Are
  • Value , Rareness, imitability, Organisation
  • Value , Rareness, imitability, Organisation
  • Value , Rareness, Imitability, Organisation
  • Value , Rareness, imitability, Organisation
  1. Liquidation Means
  • Liquidity Ratios
  • Selling Of A Firm
  • Cash Liquidity
  • Piecemeal Sale of the Firm's entire Asset
  1. In Rumelt 's Consonance criteria for evaluating strategies there is need for
  • Examining set of trends as well individual trends
  • Examining external & internal factors
  • Matching various objectives
  • Matching various strategies
  1. Marketing Mix Variables Are
  • Product, Place, Price, Priority
  • Product, Place, Promotion, Price
  • Money, Material, Men, Machine
  • Product, Price, Promotion, Profit
  1. Constant dollars are dollars adjusted for
  • Adjusted for inflation
  • Adjusted for consumer price index
  • Euros
  • Rupees
  1. First Mover Generally Focusses On
  • R&D
  • Price
  • Promotion
  • Packaging
  1. What Is Performance?
  • Actual Outcome
  • Ability to Work
  • Way A Firm Works.
  • Set of Activities
  1. Conglomerate Structure Is Appropriate For
  • MNCs
  • Large Firm With Many Product Lines In Several Unrelated Industries
  • Multiple Product Firm
  • Finn With Many Divisions
  1. A bribe is defined as
  • Coercing some body for some undue favour
  • A gift bestowed to influence a recipient's conduct
  • Gifting valuables for some undue favour
  • Offering money for some undue favour
  1. Virtual Teams Are
  • Real Teams With Virtual Abilities
  • Groups Of Employees Using Video Conferencing
  • Groups Of Geographically Dispersed Coworkers Assembled Through Telecommunications & Information Technology
  • Artificially Intelligent Teams
  1. TQM is an operational philosophy that stresses commitment to
  • Customer Satisfaction with Quality Control
  • Customer Satisfaction through Six-Sigma Program
  • Customer Satisfaction with Continuous Improvement
  • Customer Satisfaction with Quality Circles Teams
  1. Demographic trends are which part of Societal Environment
  • Economic
  • Technological
  • Political
  • Sociocultural
  1. An Entry Barrier Is
  • Entry Fee Is High.
  • Initial Investment Is High
  • An Obstruction That Makes It Difficult For A Company To Enter An Industry
  • Physical Barrier
  1. A firm following a Concentration Strategy would like a CEO to be
  • Cautious Profit Planner
  • Dynamic Industry Expert
  • Analytical Portfolio Manager
  • Professional Liquidator
  1. A Tactic Is A
  • Action Plan
  • Short Term Strategy
  • How To Deal With Actual Problems
  • Specific Operating Plan Detailing How A Strategy Is To Be Put Into Action.
  1. Rumelt 's Feasibility criteria for evaluating strategies means
  • Without overburdening resources
  • Within its capabilities
  • Neither over tax resources nor create unsolvable sub problems
  • Not judging on past performance
  1. The 3rd Phase Of Evolvement Of Strategic Management Was
  • Externally Oriented Strategic Planning
  • Financial Planning
  • Forecast Based Planning
  • Long Term Planning
  1. In “Dialectical Enquiry” Approach Requires
  • One Proposal With Two Assumptions
  • Two Proposals With Different Assumptions
  • One Proposal With Different Assumptions
  • Many Proposals With Different Assumptions
  1. In Altman 's bankruptcy formula a score of 1.5 indicates that the firm is
  • Moving towards healthy firm
  • Moving towards profit making
  • Moving no where
  • Moving towards bankruptcy
  1. Corporate Strategy Deals With Three Key Issues
  • Product, Price & Promotion
  • Business, Functions & Sales
  • Direction, Portfolio & Parenting
  • Portfolio, Market & Distribution
  1. Business ethics can be defined as principles of conduct within firms that guide
  • Decision making & behavior
  • Decision making & profit
  • Vision & mission
  • Strategy & tactics
  1. Guerrilla Warfare Tactic Means
  • Hide & Attack
  • Hit & Hide
  • Hit & Run
  • Bypass Attack
  1. The Average Size Of The Board Is
  • 9 to 12
  • 5 to 8
  • 10 to 16
  • 3 to 5
  1. Reengineering Is The
  • Radical Redesign Of Its Business Processes
  • Renewing Technology
  • Radical Redesign Of Its Structure
  • Transfer Of Technology
  1. MBO is a Firm- Wide approach of linking
  • Individual objectives with individual behaviour
  • Organisational objectives with functional behaviour
  • Organisational objectives with organisational behaviour
  • Organisational objectives with individual behaviour
  1. According to Porter, A Corporation Is Most Concerned With
  • Competitors
  • Suppliers
  • Buyers
  • Intensity Of Competition.

 

 

 

 

 

OPMC 632

Set – 1

 

  1. Difficult performance management conversations focus on three main objectives. Choose the item that does not belong.
  • To protect the employees’ rights
  • To correct performance, not to punish the performer
  • To project manpower needs for the coming year
  • To protect you and the organization
  1. Which of the following is an example of a key performance indicator:
  • Day's cash on hand
  • All of the above
  • Operating income
  • Lead time to fill customer orders
  1. Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more efficient?
  • An "everyday" low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific order
  • Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
  • All of the above
  • Price promotions that expire on a specific date
  1. A company that can offer on-site repair in only 1 or 2 hours is an example of a company that is competing on competitive dimension.
  • Process quality
  • Delivery speed
  • Delivery reliability
  • Flexibility
  1. A breakeven point indicates which of the following:
  • The point where we are most efficient
  • The point where cost is minimized
  • The point where we are indifferent between two options
  • The point where profit is maximized
  1. A clear hierarchy of objectives in the project definition would NOT normally contain:
  • Success criteria
  • Control mechanisms
  • An End result
  • The purpose
  1. All of the following statements concerning the characteristics of aggregate planning for services is true except
  • most services cannot be inventoried
  • labor is the most constraining resource
  • capacity is easy to predict
  • demand is difficult to predict
  1. Supply-chain strategy concepts are applicable to what types of companies?
  • Restaurants
  • Service
  • All of the above
  • Airlines
  1. The operating system that runs their assembly lines all the time
  • Handle the products in batch mode
  • Continuous-Flow operations system
  • Each team experts process the products
  • Job production
  1. Income protection programmes include:
  • medical insurance
  • all of the above.
  • pension plans.
  • social security.
  1. The activities of the operations managers include
  • Laying out the production facility
  • Choosing a process for producing the company’s goods or services
  • Selecting a production site
  • All of the above
  1. Which of the following statement is NOT true about Class A,B and C items?
  • Class A items are those 20% of high usage items, which generally account for 80% of total usage value.
  • Class B items typically account for 40% of total value and 30% of the items.
  • Pareto's law states that typically 20% of stocked items account for 80% of value.
  • Class C items usually comprise 50% of total items, but only I 0% of the total value.
  1. A national distribution centre for soft drinks is most likely to use which form of inventory?
  • Buffet inventory
  • Cycle inventory
  • Pipeline inventory
  • Anticipation inventory
  1. Which of the following statements is not true about operations strategy?
  • Operations strategy is concerned with setting broad policies and plans for using the resources of the firm to best support the firm's long-term competitive strategy.
  • Operations strategy involves a long-term process that must foster inevitable change.
  • An operations strategy involves decisions that relate to the design of a product and the infrastructure needed to support the product.
  • Operations strategy can be viewed as part of planning process that coordinates operational goals with those of the larger organization .
  1. The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at higher volume is:
  • Job Shop
  • Project
  • Batch
  • Assembly Line
  1. Which one is a continuous process of identifying, measuring and developing performance in organisations by linking each individual’s performance and objectives to the organisation’s overall mission and goals.
  • Reward system
  • Strategic planning
  • Performance management
  • Performance appraisal
  1. Operations Managers
  • Do the financial planning for the company
  • Make sure that products are produced efficiently, that products and services are marketed to maximize sales, and that the company is earning profit
  • Are responsible for developing the IT operations of the company
  • Are responsible for marketing the products
  1. Projects with high levels of complexity are likely to be especially difficult to define and set realistic objectives for.
  • False
  • True
  1. The Critical Path is an activity (or series of activities) that if delayed will delay the whole project.
  • True
  • False
  1. The term "assurance " in operations strategy reflects
  • Confidence
  • Illustrations
  • Ambience
  • Advantage
  1. Which of the following is not an alternative identified in the service-system design matrix?
  • Face-to-face loose specs
  • Phone contact
  • Mail contact
  • All of the above are identified
  1. Projects are usually in high-volume, low-variety operations.
  • True
  • False
  1. An operating system consists of
  • The processes and activities associated with HR
  • The processes and activities needed to operate the equipment’s
  • The processes and activities needed to market the products
  • The processes and activities needed to produce goods or services
  1. The type of processing structure that is used to produce gasoline, chemicals, and steel is:
  • Job Shop
  • Project
  • Assembly Line
  • Continuous Flow

 

  1. Who developed the value Matrix
  • Treacy
  • Martinez & Bititci
  • Porter
  • Deming
  1. Which of the following aggregate planning techniques guarantees an optimal solution?
  • management coefficients model
  • trial and error with a spreadsheet
  • linear programming
  • search decision rule
  1. Which of the following costs decrease as the order size is increased?
  • Obsolescence costs
  • Working capital costs
  • Storage costs
  • Price discount costs
  1. Which Quality Guru advocated that senior management is responsible for 94% of quality problems?
  • Juran
  • Deming
  • lshikawa
  • Crosby
  1. An example of a business/industry that uses batch flow process structure is:
  • Automobile assembly
  • French restaurant
  • Commercial printer
  • Heavy equipment
  1. Which one refers to service encounters whose specifications must be developed through some interaction between the customer and the server.
  • Mail contact
  • Phone contact
  • Face-to-Face total customization
  • Face-to-face tight specs

 

Set – 2

 

  1. The Critical Path is an activity (or series of activities) that if delayed will delay the whole project.
  • False
  • True
  1. Which of the following is beyond the operations strategy
  • Papers
  • Technology
  • Process
  • Core Competence
  1. Testing is an example of:
  • Appraisal costs
  • Prevention costs
  • External failure costs
  • Internal failure costs
  1. The operating system that runs their assembly lines all the time
  • Handle the products in batch mode
  • Each team experts process the products
  • Job production
  • Continuous-Flow operations system
  1. Which Quality Guru advocated that senior management is responsible for 94% of quality problems?
  • Deming
  • Juran
  • lshikawa
  • Crosby
  1. A Gantt chart is used to show a project timeline diagrammatically .
  • True
  • False
  1. The major decision variables in equipment selection are:
  • Manufacturer
  • Both A and B
  • Labor requirements
  • Flexibility
  1. Which of the following statement is NOT true about Class A,B and C items?
  • Class A items are those 20% of high usage items, which generally account for 80% of total usage value.
  • Class B items typically account for 40% of total value and 30% of the items.
  • Pareto's law states that typically 20% of stocked items account for 80% of value.
  • Class C items usually comprise 50% of total items, but only I 0% of the total value.
  1. The ability to master new technologies, design and introduce new products is an example of.
  • Systems-based capabilities
  • Process-based capabilities
  • Coordination based capabilities
  • Organization-based capabilities
  1. The item in the list below that is not a major competitive dimension that forms the competitive position of a company is:
  • cost
  • delivery speed
  • product quality and reliability
  • coping with changes in supply
  1. A company that can offer on-site repair in only 1 or 2 hours is an example of a company that is competing on _____ competitive dimension.
  • Flexibility
  • Delivery reliability
  • Process quality
  • Delivery speed
  1. The main argument against the just-in-time approach lies in the very conditions it seeks to promote, namely the insulation of stages in the process.
  • True
  • False
  1. An operating system consists of
  • The processes and activities needed to market the products
  • The processes and activities needed to operate the equipment’s
  • The processes and activities needed to produce goods or services
  • The processes and activities associated with HR
  1. When a company seeks to match the benefits of a successful competitor position while maintaining its existing competitive position is called:
  • Fair competitive response
  • Strategic fitting
  • Straddling
  • Activity-system mapping
  1. The term "assurance " in operations strategy reflects
  • Confidence
  • Illustrations
  • Advantage
  • Ambience
  1. Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more efficient?
  • An "everyday" low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific order
  • All of the above
  • Price promotions that expire on a specific date
  • Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
  1. Which of the following is not an alternative identified in the service-system design matrix?
  • Phone contact
  • Face-to-face loose specs
  • Mail contact
  • All of the above are identified
  1. Which one refers to service encounters whose specifications must be developed through some interaction between the customer and the server.
  • Phone contact
  • Face-to-face tight specs
  • Face-to-Face total customization
  • Mail contact
  1. Income protection programmes include:
  • medical insurance
  • all of the above.
  • social security.
  • pension plans.
  1. Operations Managers
  • Do the financial planning for the company
  • Are responsible for marketing the products
  • Make sure that products are produced efficiently, that products and services are marketed to maximize sales, and that the company is earning profit
  • Are responsible for developing the IT operations of the company
  1. All of the following statements concerning the characteristics of aggregate planning for services is true except
  • capacity is easy to predict
  • most services cannot be inventoried
  • labor is the most constraining resource
  • demand is difficult to predict
  1. A critical path network diagram does NOT:
  • Calculate earned value.
  • Identify the particularly important activities.
  • Calculate the duration of the whole project
  • Help determine the amount of float
  1. What is the purpose of Operations Strategy
  • Take Time advantage
  • Competitive advantage
  • Paper advantage
  • None of the above
  1. Which of the following is not an element of a good service guarantee?
  • Ensures the firm makes a profit
  • Unconditional
  • Easy to understand and communicate
  • Painless to invoke
  1. The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is?
  • Batch shop
  • Job shop
  • Assembly line
  • Group technology cell
  1. Inventory used to compensate for the uncertainties inherent in supply and demand is known as:
  • Pipeline inventory
  • Anticipation inventory
  • Cycle inventory
  • Buffer inventory
  1. De-coupling inventory occurs because one or more stages in the process cannot supply all the items it produces simultaneously.
  • True
  • False
  1. Supply-chain strategy concepts are applicable to what types of companies?
  • Service
  • All of the above
  • Airlines
  • Restaurants
  1. Inventory used to compensate for differences in the timing of supply and demand is known as:
  • Buffer inventory
  • Cycle inventory
  • Anticipation inventory
  • Pipeline inventory
  1. SPC tools commonly used for continuous improvement efforts include:
  • All of the above
  • Cause and effect diagrams
  • Process flow chart
  • Pareto analysis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

OPMC 641 (2019)

 

Set – 1

 

  1. Warranty cost includes following cost head(s):
  • Product cost
  • All of the above
  • Process Cost
  • People Cost
  1. Which of the following is a reason that single sourcing is considered bad/risky?
  • Larger orders make quantity discounts more likely
  • The buyer’s required ordering quantities very low
  • The limited capacity of one supplier
  • Decreases the item to item quality variability of items purchased
  1. The economic functions of distribution centers include
  • Consolidation
  • Break bulk
  • All of these
  • Stockpiling
  1. The following is a term that refers to error-or mistake proofing
  • Kaizen
  • Lean layouts
  • Poka-yoke
  • Muda
  1. Which of the following is an obstacle to successful process integration?
  • Lack of supply chain visibility
  • Passive integration
  • Collaborative inventory management
  • Cloud-based supply chain management
  1. The Quick Response program, developed in 19080s was an offshoot of the following supply chain concept:
  • Just-in-Time
  • Cross Docking
  • Efficient consumer response
  • Six Sigma
  1. Lean thinking is a philosophy incorporating tool which seeks to economically optimize:
  • Human Resources
  • Assets
  • Productivity
  • All of these
  1. _____ is a method by which lean principles are applied in the examination of business processes.
  • Small batch scheduling
  • Value Stream Analysis
  • Lean Supply Chain
  • JIT
  1. The following are all examples of lean warehousing capabilities except
  • Reduced lot sizes and shipping quantities
  • decreased assembly operations
  • Greater emphasis on crossdocking
  • Increased automation
  1. Implementing e-Procurement system has several advantages except
  • Cost Savings
  • Benefits to the supplier
  • None of these
  • Accuracy
  1. Which of the following are among the MOST important elements of the lean production philosophy?
  • Fully automated assembly lines and a large supplier base
  • Quality inspections and a standardized product line
  • Large inventories and quality inspections
  • Waste reduction and continuous improvement
  1. _____ is defined as the assurance policy applied to all customers where the purchased goods or services are (or shall be) as specified and, if not, they will be repaired
  • None of these
  • Insurance
  • Warranty
  • Guarantee

 

  1. Which of the key supply chain business processes refers to meeting customer requirements by synchronizing the firm’s marketing, production and distribution plans?
  • Customer demand organization process
  • Customer relationship management process
  • Supply chain synchronization process
  • Order fulfillment process
  1. Which of the following is NOT consistent with the lean philosophy?
  • Positioning WIP inventories near each processing center
  • Increasing batch size to take advantage of economies of scale
  • Cross-training employees to increase processing flexibility
  • Developing a culture of continuous improvement within the organization
  1. Which of the following would be a good reason to outsource(buy) versus making?
  • No competent supplier presently produces the needed item
  • To have more direct control over the design and production of an end item
  • To utilize existing capacity within a company's own firm
  • A firm lacks the technology or expertise to product an item
  1. Which of the following is the contributor of bullwhip effect?
  • rationing
  • smaller order sizes
  • EDLP
  • VMI
  1. Which of the following is not considered as the merit of VMI?
  • Visibility of buyer's Point of Sale
  • Increased logistics service level
  • Lower stock out rates
  • Switching cost is under control
  1. Which of the following statement is TRUE of many large firms today?
  • All of these
  • They are trying to create alliances or strategic partnerships with suppliers
  • They are paying closer attention to what their direct customers really think of the goods and services bought
  • They are selling off business units to focus more on core capabilities

 

  1. Which of the following can be classified as a 3PL?
  • A company that offers customs clearing services
  • All of these
  • A company that offers warehousing services
  • A company that offers transportation services
  1. Performance measurements generally _____
  • Help identify new customer requirements
  • assist in pricing of products
  • Help to eliminate non-value creating activities and identify new customer requirements
  • Help to eliminate non-value creating activities
  1. The primary goals of purchasing include all except
  • Improve the quality of finished goods produced
  • secure materials at the lowest cost
  • maximize customer satisfaction
  • ensure the highest quality raw materials are purchased
  1. Which of the following is an advantage of a centralized purchasing department?
  • Better knowledge of unit requirements
  • More frequent shipments
  • Closer contact between buyer and user
  • Quantity Discounts
  1. Distribution provides following utilities to consumers?
  • Place
  • Possession
  • All of these
  • Time
  1. The success of effective and efficient distribution system relies on integration of
  • Material
  • Money
  • None of these
  • Efforts
  1. _____ Means doing the right things to create the most benefit for the company
  • Efficiency
  • Productivity
  • Value
  • Effectiveness
  1. Which of the following modes of cargo transport can be characterized as being the most inexpensive and very slow, yet good for transporting very heavy goods a long distance?
  • Rail Carriers
  • Air carriers
  • Motor Carriers
  • Water Carriers
  1. Which one out of the following is NOT considered as key supply chain business processes?
  • Returns Management
  • Process Integration
  • Customer relationship management process
  • Customer Service Management
  1. The supply chain strategy as cost leadership is a differentiation strategy with following characteristics
  • Fast and service driven
  • lean
  • Agile
  • All of these
  1. Which is clubbed under secondary activities of the Porter’s value chain?
  • Procurement
  • Outbound logistics
  • Operations
  • Inbound logistics
  1. A warehouse receipt does not have the following
  • Market value of goods
  • Declared shelf life of goods
  • Tax liabilities
  • Receipt number

 

Set – 2

 

 

  1. Which out of the following steps is not included in RFID implementation?
  • Distribution center
  • Supplier Selection
  • Material management
  • Manufacturing
  1. Economic Value Added stands for
  • operating profits after taxes - cost of capital
  • operating profits after taxes + cost of capital
  • operating profits after taxes/cost of capital
  • None of these
  1. Which out of the following is a practice aimed at purchasing products that meet environmental objectives
  • Green Marketing
  • All of these
  • Green Sales
  • Green Procurement
  1. The service contract management is successful if
  • lots of surprises
  • expected business benefits are low
  • None of these
  • supplier is cooperative
  1. Which of the following is not an assumption of the EOQ model?
  • Lead time is known and constant
  • Production and use can occur simultaneously
  • Quantity discounts are not possible
  • Demand is known, constant and independent
  1. The supply chain strategy as cost leadership is a differentiation strategy with following characteristics
  • Agile
  • Fast and service driven
  • Lean
  • All of these
  1. Which of the following is not a classification of Value Added service?
  • Quality
  • Problem Solving
  • Sales Support
  • Information
  1. Which is clubbed under secondary activities of the Porter’s value chain?
  • Procurement
  • Outbound logistics
  • Inbound logistics
  • Operations
  1. Which one out of the following is NOT considered as key supply chain business processes?
  • Process Integration
  • Customer Service Management
  • Returns Management
  • Customer relationship management process
  1. Which of the following modes of cargo transport can be characterized as being the most inexpensive and very slow, yet good for transporting very heavy goods a long distance?
  • Rail Carriers
  • Air carriers
  • Water Carriers
  • Motor Carriers
  1. The primary transformation function provided by Hospital can be described as
  • Storage
  • Physical
  • Location
  • Physiological

 

  1. Which of the following is not considered as the merit of VMI?
  • Lower stock out rates
  • Switching cost is under control
  • Visibility of buyer's Point of Sale
  • Increased logistics service level

 

  1. The following are all examples of lean warehousing capabilities except
  • Increased automation
  • decreased assembly operations
  • Greater emphasis on crossdocking
  • Reduced lot sizes and shipping quantities
  1. Warranty cost includes following cost head(s):
  • Process Cost
  • Product cost
  • All of the above
  • People Cost
  1. Implementing e-Procurement system has several advantages except
  • Benefits to the supplier
  • Cost Savings
  • Accuracy
  • None of these
  1. Value added services give ______ advantages to the organizations
  • unexpected shifts in consumer demand
  • Changing retailer requirements
  • Agility to respond to special orders
  • All of these
  1. Every service contract's starting stage is
  • Approval
  • Authoring
  • Request
  • Negotiation
  1. In push supply chain
  • a manufacturer initiates manufacturing only after it has received an order
  • a manufacturer forecasts demand and produces product and makes them available to customers
  • either a manufacturer initiates manufacturing only after it has received an order or forecasts demand and produces product and makes them available to customers
  • None of these
  1. Which of the following are among the MOST important elements of the lean production philosophy?
  • Fully automated assembly lines and a large supplier base
  • Waste reduction and continuous improvement
  • Large inventories and quality inspections
  • Quality inspections and a standardized product line
  1. ____ is to coordinate and integrate supply, operations and logistics activities among the focal firm and its key supply chain trading partners
  • Supply chain management
  • Supply chin Integration
  • None of these
  • Supply Chain Linkages
  1. If an item is ordered at its EOQ, the annual carrying cost should be
  • slightly less that the annual ordering cost
  • equal to the ordering cost
  • the square root of the annual ordering cost
  • twice the annual purchase prices
  1. Which of the following would be a good reason to outsource(buy) versus making?
  • To utilize existing capacity within a company's own firm
  • No competent supplier presently produces the needed item
  • A firm lacks the technology or expertise to product an item
  • To have more direct control over the design and production of an end item
  1. Which of the following is a reverse logistics activity
  • Recycling products and components
  • Developing a collaborative relationship with your supplier
  • Managing the quality of products
  • Delivering finished goods to your customer
  1. _____ is defined as the assurance policy applied to all customers where the purchased goods or services are (or shall be) as specified and, if not, they will be repaired
  • None of these
  • Insurance
  • Warranty
  • Guarantee
  1. Which of the following is not a part of the order cycle?
  • Order entry
  • Order cross checking
  • Order allocation and picking
  • Order shipment and delivery
  1. A warehouse receipt does not have the following
  • Tax liabilities
  • Declared shlf life of goods
  • Receipt number
  • Market value of goods
  1. Lean production emphasizes all of the following except:
  • Synchronization of material flows
  • large batch sizes
  • Reduction of waste
  • Continuous improvement
  1. ______ Means doing the right things to create the most benefit for the company
  • Effectiveness
  • Efficiency
  • Productivity
  • Value
  1. Which of the following is the reason that small value purchases are handled differently?
  • To give the buyer additional supplier choices
  • To control unnecessary administrative cost
  • To have better tracking of material usage
  • To obtain a higher quality product
  1. The primary goals of purchasing include all except
  • maximize customer satisfaction
  • ensure the highest quality raw materials are purchased
  • secure materials at the lowest cost
  • Improve the quality of finished goods produced

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

OPMC 601

Set – 1

  1. A _____________________ is a form of product that consists of activities, benefits, or satisfactions offered for sale that are essentially intangible and do not result in the ownership of anything
  • need
  • Demand
  • physical object
  • services
  1. The following does not represent a service market situation
  • A fund rising Charity Show for the members of an NGO
  • A stall distributing Tirumala prasadam in a mandir
  • A bank run dispensary in its staff quarters
  • A Meditation Camp of a religious Organization conducted for its members
  1. As per service-quality model, the capacity to complete the promised service accurately and dependably is
  • Assurance
  • Responsiveness
  • Reliability
  • Empathy
  1. Increasing customer expectations of what an organization can deliver
  • Can result in poor perceptions of overall service quality
  • None of the above
  • NO change
  • Can result in improved perceptions of overall service quality
  1. The quality of a service depends on who provides it, as well as when, where, and how it is provided. This is an example of which characteristic of services
  • variability
  • intangibility
  • inseparability
  • perishability
  1. In Banking Services Market can be segmented on the basis of
  • a & b both
  • Density
  • Customers
  • neither a nor b
  1. Successful service companies focus their attention on both their customers and their employees. They understand ______. which links service firm profits with employee and customer satisfaction
  • interactive marketing
  • internal marketing
  • service-profit chains
  • service differentiation
  1. Which of the following is a combination of different service elements, including products
  • Communications mix
  • Service mix
  • Marketing mix
  • Product mix
  1. Service firms can increase quality control by
  • Making investment in good hiring
  • All of the above
  • Standardize the service performance process
  • Monitor customer satisfaction
  1. A Brand name is
  • Its legal version is trademark
  • A Symbol or a design for the purpose of identification
  • It is given legal protection
  • all the above
  1. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n)
  • Idea
  • Demand-based pricing
  • Services
  • Product
  1. Which of the following is not one of the distinct characteristics of service
  • Perishability
  • Tangibility
  • Inseparability
  • Intangibility
  1. It is difficult to measure the morale of the sales team directly because
  • It is a tangible state
  • Employees hide the truth
  • It is an intangible state
  • all the above
  1. If a company has a hybrid offer, then its offer may be described as being one where there is
  • a tangible good with accompanying services
  • an equal amount of goods and services
  • a service with accompanying minor goods
  • a clone service package
  1. A __________ is any performance or act one party can provide to another that is essentially intangible and doesn't provides ownership of anything
  • None of the above
  • Product
  • Both a & b
  • Service
  1. The five determinants of service quality in order of importance are
  • Reliability, Responsiveness, Assurance, Empathy, Tangibles
  • All of above are false
  • Responsiveness, Reliability, Assurance, Empathy, Tangibles
  • Tangibles, empathy, assurance, responsiveness, reliability
  1. _____ can be cultivated
  • Peak demand
  • Nonpeak demand
  • Normal demand
  • None of the above
  1. Dog walking, tax advice, and counselling are examples of what
  • Combination
  • Product with some services
  • Pure service
  • Pure product
  1. A_____ is a name, term, sign, symbol or design, or a combination of these, that identifies the maker or seller of a product or service
  • logo
  • sponsorship
  • product feature
  • brand
  1. Services are manufactured and consumed simultaneously; they cannot be stored either prior to or after the service encounter . This is referred to as
  • Inseparability
  • Lack of ownership
  • Perishability
  • Intangibility
  1. This is an organization's systematic attempt to correct a service failure and to retain a customer's goodwill
  • Service processes
  • Service recovery
  • Service encounter
  • Service failure
  1. The fact that services cannot be stored for later use or sale is evidence of their
  • inseparability
  • variability
  • perishability
  • intangibility
  1. As per the service quality model, researchers figure out ____ determinants of service quality
  • 6
  • 4
  • 3
  • 5
  1. Select name of the country having maximum percent of GDP attributed to services
  • China
  • india
  • Germany
  • United States
  1. The perceived fairness of the level of economic advantages derived from service usage in relationships to the economic costs is
  • Payment debt
  • None of the above
  • Payment equity
  • Payment profits
  1. Standardized and customized flow of activities, simple and complex number of steps and customer involvement by which a service is delivered is called??..
  • Place Mix
  • Physical Evidence Mix
  • People Mix
  • Process Mix
  1. As per service-quality model, the willingness to assist customers and offer prompt service is
  • Empathy
  • Assurance
  • Responsiveness
  • Reliability
  1. These types of services try to shape attitudes or behaviour. In order to achieve this, these services have to be oriented to people’s minds, This is referred to as
  • Mental stimulus processing
  • Possession processing
  • Information processing
  • People processing
  1. _____ are those characteristics that buyer evaluate the characteristics after the purchase
  • Search qualities
  • Credence qualities
  • Experience qualities
  • None of the above
  1. The use of sales literature and brochures to give signs about the quality and positioning of the service is an example of
  • Products
  • People
  • Processes
  • Physical evidence

 

Set – 2

 

  1. Which of the following is not an element of physical evidence?
  • Employee dress
  • Equipment
  • Employee Training
  • Facility design
  1. A Brand name is
  • Its legal version is trademark
  • A Symbol or a design for the purpose of identification
  • It is given legal protection
  • all the above
  1. As per service-quality model. The system of individualized and caring attention to customers is
  • Empathy
  • Responsiveness
  • Assurance
  • Reliability
  1. Which of the following would not be one of the three major groups of industrial products and services
  • computer software for PCs
  • materials and parts
  • supplies and services
  • capital items
  1. As per service-quality model, the courtesy and knowledge of employees and their ability to instill confidence and trust is
  • Empathy
  • Responsiveness
  • Assurance
  • Reliability
  1. The service-quality model identifies _____ gaps that results in Unsuccessful delivery
  • 5
  • 3
  • 6
  • 4
  1. When links between service personnel and service process break down, this is referred to as
  • Failures in delivery system
  • Failure in response to customer requests
  • Service failure
  • Failure through employee actions
  1. Which of the following is an event that occurs when a customer's expectations of a service encounter are not met
  • Service failure
  • Service encounter
  • Servicescape
  • Service mix
  1. It is difficult to measure the morale of the sales team directly because
  • It is an intangible state
  • all the above
  • Employees hide the truth
  • It is a tangible state
  1. Airplane travel can be categorized wider
  • Pure Services
  • Tangible good with accompanying services
  • Major Service with accompanying minor goods and services
  • Pure tangible good
  1. The service provided at restaurant is an example of
  • Hybrid
  • Pure tangible good
  • Major Service with accompanying minor goods and services
  • Tangible good with accompanying services
  1. Once a train pulls out of a station, an Aeroplan takes off or a film starts, those seats are lost and can never be sold. This is referred to as
  • Variability
  • Intangibility
  • Inseparability
  • Perishability
  1. Low early-evening movie prices is an example of
  • Differential pricing
  • Qualitative pricing
  • None of the above
  • Same pricing
  1. Select name of the country having maximum percent of GDP attributed to services
  • Germany
  • China
  • India
  • United States
  1. The quality of a service depends on who provides it, as well as when, where, and how it is provided. This is an example of which characteristic of services
  • perishability
  • intangibility
  • inseparability
  • variability
  1. Dog walking, tax advice, and counselling are examples of what
  • Combination
  • Product with some services
  • Pure service
  • Pure product
  1. Which of the following is a combination of different service elements, including products
  • Communications mix
  • Service mix
  • Marketing mix
  • Product mix
  1. The seat in a theatre, train, plane or ferry is rented on a temporary basis in exchange for a fee. The terms associated with the rental of the seat determine the time and use or experience to which the seat can be put. However, the seat remains the property of the theatre owner, rail operator, airline or Ferry Company. This is referred to as
  • Variability
  • Inseparability
  • Lack of ownership
  • Tangibility
  1. There are in total ____ categories of service mix
  • Four
  • None of these
  • five
  • six
  1. Promotion in Services means
  • passing an examination
  • selling the services in specific areas
  • elevation from one grade to another
  • selling the services through various means
  1. The perceived fairness of the level of economic advantages derived from service usage in relationships to the economic costs is
  • Payment equity
  • Payment debt
  • None of the above
  • Payment profits
  1. This is a characteristic of a service, namely that they do not have physical attributes and so therefore cannot be perceived by the senses - cannot be tasted, seen, touched, smelt or possessed
  • Inseparability
  • Perishability
  • Variability
  • Intangibility
  1. Which of the following is not a tangible dominant
  • Investment Management
  • Detergents
  • Soft drinks
  • Automobiles
  1. When there is little or no personal contact between customer and service provider, this is classified as
  • Intense-contact service
  • Low-contact service
  • Medium-contact service
  • High-contact service
  1. The fact that services are sold, produced, and consumed at the same time refers to which of the following service characteristics
  • intangibility
  • variability
  • perishability
  • inseparability
  1. Successful service companies focus their attention on both their customers and their employees. They understand ______. which links service firm profits with employee and customer satisfaction
  • interactive marketing
  • internal marketing
  • service-profit chains
  • service differentiation
  1. By lowering prices to attract customers during quieter times and raising prices when demand is at its highest, demand can be levelled and marginal revenues increased This is an example of
  • Service-based pricing
  • Demand-based pricing
  • Differential pricing
  • Intangible pricing
  1. The fact that services cannot be stored for later use or sale is evidence of their
  • inseparability
  • variability
  • perishability
  • intangibility
  1. Standardized and customized flow of activities, simple and complex number of steps and customer involvement by which a service is delivered is called??..
  • Place Mix
  • Physical Evidence Mix
  • People Mix
  • Process Mix
  1. At customer service interface, company intends to manage a relationship with a customer through
  • Technology
  • Both a and b
  • People
  • None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

QTMC 522       (2019)

Set – 1

  1. The variance of a population is known to be 400. At 95% confidence, the margin of error will be
  • 92 or less
  • 4 or less
  • 2 or less
  • 29 or less
  1. The p-value
  • is the same as the Z statistic
  • is a distance
  • is a probability
  • measures the number of standard deviations from the mean
  1. In a cumulative relative frequency distribution, the last class will have a cumulative relative frequency equal to
  • zero
  • the total number of elements in the data set
  • one
  • 100
  1. In hypothesis testing if the null hypothesis is rejected,
  • the sample size has been too small
  • the alternative hypothesis is true
  • the data must have been accumulated incorrectly
  • no conclusions can be drawn from the test
  1. In hypothesis testing, the tentative assumption about the population parameter is
  • either the null or the alternative
  • None of these alternatives is correct.
  • the alternative hypothesis
  • the null hypothesis
  1. In determining the sample size necessary to estimate a population proportion, which of the following information is not needed?
  • the maximum margin of error that can be tolerated
  • a preliminary estimate of the true population proportion P
  • the confidence level required
  • the mean of the population
  1. For which of the following values of P is the value of P(I - P) maximized?
  • P = 0.99
  • P = 0.50
  • P = 0.01
  • P = 0.90
  1. A 95% confidence interval for a population mean is determined to be 100 to 120. If the confidence coefficient is reduced to 0.90, the interval for µ
  • becomes 0.1
  • does not change
  • becomes wider
  • becomes narrower
  1. In a random sample of 100 observations, P = 0.2. The 95.44% confidence interval for P is
  • 120 to 0.280
  • 134 to 0.266
  • 164 to 0.236
  • 122 to 0.278
  1. In general, higher confidence levels provide
  • narrower confidence intervals
  • a smaller standard error
  • wider confidence intervals
  • unbiased estimates
  1. The level of significance in hypothesis testing is the probability of
  • None of these alternatives is correct.
  • rejecting a true null hypothesis
  • accepting a true null hypothesis
  • accepting a false null hypothesis
  1. As the number of degrees of freedom for a t distribution increases, the difference between the t distribution and the standard normal distribution
  • becomes larger
  • becomes smaller
  • None of the above answers is correct.
  • stays the same
  1. In constructing a frequency distribution, as the number of classes are decreased, the class width
  • remains unchanged
  • decreases
  • can increase or decrease depending on the data values
  • increases
  1. A tabular method that can be used to summarize the data on two variables simultaneously is called:
  • an o give
  • crosstabulation
  • a histogram
  • simultaneous equations
  1. The absolute value of the difference between the point estimate and the population parameter it estimates is the
  • precision
  • error of confidence
  • sampling error
  • standard error
  1. If we change a 95% confidence interval estimate to a 99% confidence interval estimate, we can expect
  • the size of the confidence interval to increase
  • the size of the confidence interval to decrease
  • the size of the confidence interval to remain the same
  • the sample size to increase
  1. A cumulative relative frequency distribution shows
  • the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
  • the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
  • the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
  • the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
  1. The t value with a 95% confidence and 24 degrees of freedom is
  • 069
  • 064
  • 492
  • 711
  1. The sum of frequencies for all classes will always equal
  • 1
  • the number of classes
  • the number of elements in a data set
  • a value between 0 and 1
  1. A researcher is gathering data from four geographical areas designated: South = 1; North = 2; East = 3; Vest = 4. The designated geographical regions represent
  • either quantitative or qualitative data
  • label data
  • quantitative data
  • qualitative data
  1. In a cumulative percent frequency distribution, the last class will have a cumulative percent frequency equal to
  • 100
  • 1
  • the total number of elements in the data set
  • one
  1. The ability of an interval estimate to contain the value of the population parameter is described by the
  • degrees of freedom
  • confidence level
  • precise value of thepopulation mean m
  • None of the above answers is correct.
  1. If several frequency distributions are constructed from the same data set, the distribution with the widest class width will have the
  • none of these
  • most classes
  • fewest classes
  • same number of classes as the other distributions since all are constructed from the same data
  1. An estimate of a population parameter that provides an interval of values believed to contain the value of the parameter is known as the
  • interval estimate
  • confidence level
  • population estimate
  • parameter value
  1. The sum of the relative frequencies for all classes will always equal
  • any value larger than one
  • the number of classes
  • the sample size
  • one
  1. A frequency distribution is a tabular summary of data showing the
  • percentage of items in several classes
  • fraction of items in several classes
  • number of items in several classes
  • relative percentage of items in several classes
  1. In order to estimate the average time spent on the computer terminals per student at a local university, data were collected for a sample of 81 business students over a one week period Assume the population standard deviation is 1.2 hours. The standard error of the mean is
  • 16
  • 5
  • 133
  • 014
  1. Whenever the population standard deviation is unknown and the population has a normal or near-normal distribution, which distribution is used in developing an interval estimation?
  • z distribution
  • standard distribution
  • beta distribution
  • t distribution
  1. Fifteen percent of the students in a school of Business Administration are majoring in Economics, 20% in Finance, 35% in Management, and 30% in Accounting. The graphical device(s) which can be used to present these data is (are)
  • only a pie chart
  • a line graph
  • both a bar graph and a pie chart
  • only a bar graph
  1. The confidence associated with an interval estimate is called the
  • significance
  • confidence level
  • precision
  • degree of association

 

Set – 2

  1. A histogram is said to be skewed to the left if it has a
  • longer tail to the right
  • shorter tail to the right
  • longer tail to the left
  • shorter tail to the left
  1. A cumulative relative frequency distribution shows
  • The proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
  • the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
  • the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
  • the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
  1. A researcher is gathering data from four geographical areas designated :South = I; North = 2; East = 3; West = 4. The designated geographical regions represent
  • either quantitative or qualitative data
  • qualitative data
  • quantitative data
  • label data
  1. A frequency distribution is a tabular summary of data showing the
  • fraction of items in several classes
  • relative percentage of items in several classes
  • percentage of items in several classes
  • number of items in several classes
  1. When the level of confidence increases, the confidence interval
  • stays the same
  • becomes narrower
  • becomes wider
  • cannot tell from the information given
  1. The most common graphical presentation of quantitative data is a
  • relative frequency
  • pie chart
  • bar graph
  • histogram
  1. A frequency distribution is
  • a tabular summary of a set of data showing the frequency of items in each of several nonoverlapping classes
  • a tabular summary of a set of data showing the relative frequency
  • a graphical device for presenting qualitative data
  • a graphical form of representing data
  1. The confidence associated with an interval estimate is called the
  • significance
  • confidence level
  • precision
  • degree of association
  1. The p-value
  • measures the number of standard deviations from the mean
  • is the same as the Z statistic
  • is a distance
  • is a probability
  1. In constructing a frequency distribution, as the number of classes are decreased, the class width
  • can increase or decrease depending on the data values
  • remains unchanged
  • decreases
  • increases
  1. We are interested in conducting a study in order to determine what percentage of voters of a state would vote for the incumbent governor. What is the minimum size sample needed to estimate the population proportion with a margin of error of 0.05 or less at 95% confidence?
  • 100
  • 200
  • 196
  • 58
  1. In a random sample of 100 observations, P = 0.2. The 95.44% confidence interval for P is
  • 120 to 0.280
  • 134 to 0.266
  • 122 to 0.278
  • 164 to 0.236
  1. An estimate of a population parameter that provides an interval of values believed to contain the value of the parameter is known as the
  • confidence level
  • population estimate
  • interval estimate
  • parameter value
  1. The difference between the point estimate, such as the sample mean, and the value of the population parameter it estimates, such as the population mean, is known as the
  • confidence level
  • interval estimate
  • parameter estimate
  • sampling error
  1. Whenever using the t distribution in estimation, we must assume that
  • the sampling distribution is approximately normal
  • the finite population correction factor is necessary
  • the population is approximately normal
  • the sample size is at least 30
  1. The difference between the lower class limits of adjacent classes provides the
  • class midpoint
  • class width
  • class limits
  • number of classes
  1. If a hypothesis is rejected at the 5% level of significance, it
  • Will never be tested at the 1%level
  • may be rejected or not rejected at the 1% level
  • will always be accepted at the 1% level
  • will always be rejected at the 1% level
  1. For which of the following values of P is the value of P(I - P) maximized?
  • P = 0.01
  • P = 0.99
  • P = 0.50
  • P = 0.90
  1. A probability statement about the sampling error is known as the
  • precision
  • confidence
  • interval
  • error
  1. In general, higher confidence levels provide
  • a smaller standard error
  • wider confidence intervals
  • unbiased estimates
  • narrower confidence intervals
  1. In hypothesis testing if the null hypothesis is rejected,
  • the sample size has been too small
  • no conclusions can be drawn from the test
  • the data must have been accumulated incorrectly
  • the alternative hypothesis is true
  1. Qualitative data can be graphically represented by using a(n)
  • bar graph
  • frequency polygon
  • histogram
  • o give
  1. The t value with a 95% confidence and 24 degrees of freedom is
  • 711
  • 069
  • 492
  • 064
  1. A 95% confidence interval for a population mean is determined to be 100 to 120. If the confidence coefficient is reduced to 0.90, the interval for µ
  • becomes 0.1
  • becomes wider
  • does not change
  • becomes narrower
  1. An interval estimate is a range of values used to estimate
  • a sample statistic
  • a population parameter
  • the shape of the population's distribution
  • the sampling distribution
  1. After computing a confidence interval, the user believes the results are meaningless because the width of the interval is too large. Which one of the following is the best recommendation?
  • Discard the current data and try a different sample.
  • Increase the level of confidence for the interval.
  • Reduce the population variance.
  • Increase the sample size.
  1. In hypothesis testing, the tentative assumption about the population parameter is
  • the null hypothesis
  • the alternative hypothesis
  • either the null or the alternative
  • None of these alternatives is correct.
  1. A situation in which conclusions based upon aggregated cross tabulation are different from unaggregated crosstabulation is known as
  • Simpson's rule
  • wrong crosstabulation
  • Simpson's paradox
  • aggregated crosstabulation
  1. The sum of the relative frequencies for all classes will always equal
  • any value larger than one
  • the sample size
  • one
  • the number of classes
  1. As the sample size increases, the sampling error
  • increases
  • None of the above answers is correct.
  • decreases
  • stays the same

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ITSC 525

Set – 1  (2019)

 

  1. In its simplest form, a system consists of all the following except
  • A group of cooperative users
  • A set of interrelated components
  • A clearly defined boundary
  • A common set of objectives
  1. A(n) _____________ is a Web-based interface and integration of MIS, DSS, EIS, and other technologies that gives all intranet users and selected extranet users access to a variety of internal and external business applications and services.
  • enterprise Resource System
  • enterprise Information Portal
  • executive Information System
  • collaborative Information System
  1. Which of the following is a competitive strategy?
  • New entries into the market
  • Innovation
  • Bargaining power
  • Substitutes
  1. Which one of the following should be used to answer the question, "What would happen to sales if we cut advertising by 25 percent?"
  • Goal-seeking
  • Optimization
  • Sensitivity
  • What-if
  1. Decision support in business is changing, driven by all of the following except:
  • Changing corporate spending patterns
  • Rapid developments in end user computing and networking
  • Internet and Web technologies
  • Web-enabled business applications
  1. The information products from an MIS take all the following forms except
  • scheduled reports.
  • exception reports.
  • push reports.
  • pull reports.
  1. Many companies are using GIS technology along with global positioning system devices to do all of the following except:
  • Map customer traffic patterns within each store
  • Choose new retail store locations
  • Optimize distribution routes
  • Analyze the demographics of their target audiences
  1. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the form dimension of information?
  • Information is based on past, present, or future time periods.
  • Information is arranged in a predetermined sequence.
  • All the information needed is provided.
  • The information can have a broad or narrow scope, or an internal or external focus.
  1. Decision support systems use _____ to support the making of semi-structured business decisions.
  • Analytical models
  • specialized databases
  • a decision maker's own insights and judgments
  • All of the choices are correct.
  1. The rapid development of microcomputer processing power, application software packages, and telecommunications networks gave birth to the phenomenon of ______ .
  • manufacturer-to-public direct sales
  • MIS departments
  • End user computing
  • electronic monitoring
  1. Decisions made at the tactical management level tend to be more:
  • Structured
  • Semi-structured
  • Unstructured
  • Self-structured
  1. Using a decision support system involves all of the following types of analytical modeling activities except____ analysis.
  • sensitivity
  • exception
  • what-if
  • goal-seeking
  1. Instead of focusing on the information processing requirements of business functions, enterprise software focuses on supporting integrated clusters of ______ involved in the operations of a business.
  • application software
  • business processes
  • customer relationships
  • all of the choices are correct.
  1. _______ is an example of an unstructured, operational management decision.
  • Cash management
  • Program control
  • Product planning
  • Capital budgeting
  1. A strategic information system can be any kind of information system that uses information technology to help an organization ____________ .
  • gain a competitive advantage
  • reduce a competitive disadvantage
  • meet strategic enterprise objectives
  • all of the choices are correct
  1. _____ is defined as the use of the Internet and other networks and information technologies to support electronic commerce, enterprise communication and collaboration, and Web-enabled business processes, both within a networked enterprise and with customers and business partners.
  • Electronic business
  • Enterprise collaboration
  • Cross-functional system management
  • Supply chain management
  1. Deciding what product lines to develop over the next five years is an example of a(n)____ decision.
  • Structured
  • Semi-structured
  • Unstructured
  • open-ended
  1. Which of the following is one of the most common and useful types of data mining for marketing?
  • Goal seeking analysis
  • Market basket analysis
  • Optimization analysis
  • Sensitivity analysis
  1. All the following are competitive strategies except
  • New entries into the market
  • Innovation
  • Cost leadership
  • Alliances
  1. Becoming a low-cost producer of products and services in an industry is an example of a(n):
  • Cost leadership strategy
  • Differentiation strategy
  • Innovation strategy
  • Growth strategy
  1. Internal enterprise information portal applications typically include access to all of the following except:
  • E-mail and project websites
  • Human resource Web self- service
  • Internet news services
  • Corporate database
  1. Which of the following is a competitive force in the marketplace?
  • Cost leadership
  • Competition
  • Differentiation
  • Alliances
  1. All of the following can be used to counter competitive forces in the marketplace except:
  • Alliances
  • Growth
  • Innovation
  • Bargaining
  1. A weekly sales report is a typical example of a(n) _____ report.
  • periodic scheduled
  • exception
  • demand
  • action
  1. ____ is an example of a structured, tactical management decision
  • Program control
  • Employee performance appraisal
  • Credit management
  • Company reorganization
  1. How do information systems aid in decision making?
  • Information systems help companies determine investments.
  • Information systems help companies determine which products to sell or discontinue.
  • Information systems can be used to gain competitive advantage.
  • All of the choices are correct.
  1. The expanding role of information systems from the 1950s to the present, in sequential order, are:
  • Management reporting, decision support, electronic business and commerce, data processing, strategic and end user support
  • Data processing, management reporting, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce, decision support
  • Data processing, management reporting, decision support, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce
  • Electronic business and commerce, management reporting, data processing, strategic and end user support, decision support
  1. A(n) _______ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm develops unique products or services from those of its competitors, or makes radical business changes that may alter the fundamental nature of the industry.
  • alliance
  • growth
  • differentiation
  • innovation
  1. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the operational level of management?
  • Composed of a board of directors and an executive committee of the CEO and top executives who develop overall organizational goals, strategies, policies, and objectives as part of a strategic planning process
  • Composed of self-directed teams and middle managers, who develop short-and medium-range plans, schedules, and budgets
  • Composed of self-directed teams or supervisory managers who develop short-range plans, according to procedures and within the budgets and schedules established for the teams and other workgroups of the organization
  • None of the choices are correct.
  1. A(n) _____ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm seeks to become a low-cost producer of products and services in the industry.
  • low cost  leadership
  • differentiation
  • innovation
  • alliance

 

 

Set – 2

 

  1. Dell, Wal-Mart, and Amazon are a few of the companies using ____ DSS models to stimulate and optimize supply chain flow and reduce inventory levels.
  • pricing
  • product and service quality
  • financial performance
  • supply chain
  1. Investments in information technology that build valuable new relationships allow a firm to:
  • Lock in the supplier
  • Lock in the customer
  • Lock out competition
  • All the above
  1. _____ analysis is a more complex form of goal-seeking where the goal is to find the best value for a target variable given certain constraints.
  • What-if
  • Sensitivity
  • Market basket
  • Optimization
  1. All of the following are attributes of intelligent behavior that AI attempts to duplicate except:
  • Reasoning and learning
  • Emotion
  • Problem solving
  • Responding quickly and successfully to new situations
  1. All of the following are competitive forces in the marketplace except
  • Alliances
  • Competition
  • Substitutes
  • Bargaining
  1. Artificial intelligence is a science and technology based on:
  • Computer science
  • Biology and psychology
  • Linguistics and mathematics
  • All of the choices are correct
  1. ____ is an example of an unstructured, operational management decision.
  • Cash management
  • Program control
  • Product planning
  • Capital budgeting
  1. The expanding role of information systems from the 1950s to the present, in sequential order, are:
  • Management reporting, decision support, electronic business and commerce, data processing, strategic and end user support
  • Data processing, management reporting, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce, decision support
  • Data processing, management reporting, decision support, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce
  • Electronic business and commerce, management reporting, data processing, strategic and end user support, decision support
  1. All the following are competitive strategies except
  • New entries into the market
  • Innovation
  • Cost leadership
  • Alliances
  1. Many companies are using GIS technology along with global positioning system devices to do all of the following except:
  • Map customer traffic patterns within each store
  • Choose new retail store locations
  • Optimize distribution routes
  • Analyze the demographics of their target audiences
  1. A major freight company has several thousand drivers. A report containing information about only those company drivers who have not taken a mandatory defensive driving course is an example of a(n) _____ report.
  • periodic scheduled
  • exception
  • demand
  • action
  1. A firm can survive and succeed in the long nm if it successfully develops strategies to confront the _____ that shape the structure of competition in its industry.
  • technological innovations
  • competitive business processes
  • competitive forces
  • competitive strategies
  1. Which of the following is an example of an unstructured data source?
  • ERP database
  • CRM database
  • Other databases
  • E-mail
  1. A weekly sales report is a typical example of a(n) ___ report.
  • periodic scheduled
  • exception
  • demand
  • action
  1. Deciding what products lines to develop over the next five years is an example of a(n) ____ decision.
  • Structured
  • Semi-structured
  • Unstructured
  • Open-ended
  1. _____ is an example of a structured, tactical management decision.
  • Program control
  • Employee performance appraisal
  • Credit management
  • Company reorganization
  1. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the form dimension of information?
  • Information is based on past, present, or future time periods.
  • Information is arranged in a predetermined sequence.
  • All the information needed is provided.
  • The information can have a broad or narrow scope, or an internal or external focus.
  1. With ___ , data about sales offices can be rolled up to the district level, and district-level data can be rolled up to provide a regional-level perspective.
  • consolidation
  • drill-down
  • filtration
  • slicing and dicing
  1. AI applications can be grouped wider all of the following areas except:
  • Cognitive science
  • Robotics
  • Natural interfaces
  • Linguistics
  1. A(n) _____ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm significantly expands its capacity to produce goods and services, expanding and diversifying in the market
  • alliance
  • growth
  • differentiation
  • innovation
  1. By targeting customers who are already known to be likely buyers, the effectiveness of a given marketing effort is significantly increased-if the marketing takes the form of ______
  • in-store displays
  • catalogs
  • a direct offer
  • The form of the marketing does not matter.
  1. Networked enterprises view _____ systems as a strategic way to use IT to decentralize information resources.
  • Electronic business
  • enterprise collaboration
  • Cross-functional system management
  • Supply chain management
  1. How do information systems aid in decision making?
  • Information systems help companies determine investments.
  • Information systems help companies determine which products to sell or discontinue.
  • Information systems can be used to gain competitive advantage.
  • All of the choices are correct.
  1. The type of information required by decision makers in a company is directly related to the level of management decision making and the amount of ____ in the decision situations they face.
  • financial risk
  • structure
  • variable information
  • urgency
  1. All the following are examples of an information system, except
  • A paper-based accounting ledger
  • A cash register
  • A group of marbles in a box
  • A paper-based accounting ledger
  1. Becoming a low-cost producer of products and services in an industry is an example of a(n):
  • Cost leadership strategy
  • Differentiation strategy
  • Innovation strategy
  • Growth strategy
  1. ______ is defined as the use of the Internet and other networks and information technologies to support electronic commerce, enterprise communication and collaboration, and Web-enabled business processes, both within a networked enterprise and with customers and business partners.
  • Electronic business
  • Enterprise collaboration
  • Cross-functional system management
  • Supply chain management
  1. Decisions made at the tactical management level tend to be more:
  • Structured
  • Semi-structured
  • Unstructured
  • Self-structured
  1. According to the text, most retail stores today use computer -based information systems to support business processes and operations. This support falls broadly into the categories of.
  • Business decisions and strategies for competitive advantage.
  • Operations and support strategies.
  • Business decisions and operations.
  • Strategic business decisions and tactical business decisions.
  1. Which of the following is a competitive force in the marketplace?
  • Cost leadership
  • Competition
  • Differentiation
  • Alliances

 

 

 

 

 

 

HRMC 523

 

Set – 1

  1. The first discipline to take the modem corporation as the unit of analysis and emphasize the design, implementation, and coordination of various administrative and organization systems was:
  • anthropology
  • psychology
  • management
  • sociology
  1. Employee loyalty toward the organization is a significant factor in:
  • job displacement
  • employee turnover
  • continuance commitment
  • affective commitment
  1. Individuals who make external attributions will be more likely to
  • develop feelings of incompetence which may lead to depression
  • provide a supporting environment for followers
  • rarely quit because they do not feel responsible
  • achieve higher levels of performance
  1. The motivation theory that holds that employee motivation is determined by the belief that a valued outcome will result from effort is called:
  • goal-setting theory
  • equity theory
  • two-factor theory
  • expectancy theory
  1. A technique that is valuable in its ability to generate a number of independent judgments without the requirement of a face-to-face meeting is:
  • the nominal group technique
  • brainstorming
  • dialectical inquiry
  • the Delphi technique
  1. The JDI measures:
  • employee absenteeism
  • attitude specificity
  • job satisfaction
  • job performance
  1. Which of the following is considered a key benefit of diversity?
  • less thinking that is considered critical
  • less time in making decisions
  • flexibility and adaptation
  • cohesiveness
  1. Attribution theory helps to______ behavior in organizations
  • observe
  • explain causes of
  • specify correct or appropriate
  • measure
  1. As a member of a study group, you feel that others are making minimal contributions. In this situation you are LEAST likely to:
  • reduce your contribution
  • increase your participation and contribution
  • withdraw from the group
  • praise the inputs of others
  1. If a manager asks an employee to purchase a gift for his wife, the employee would think this request:
  • falls within his zone of indifference
  • falls outside his zone of indifference
  • should be based on the manager's authority base
  • is in conflict with the employee’s value system
  1. The dynamic process through which the emotions are transferred from one person to another is called
  • none of these
  • Emotional Quotient
  • emotional adaptability
  • emotional contagion
  1. According to the Protestant ethic, a person should work hard because hard work and prosperity would lead to a place in heaven. The organizational scholar who advanced the Protestant Ethic notion was:
  • Adam Smith
  • John Calvin
  • Sigmund Freud
  • Max Weber
  1. Modern management practices such as employee management recognition programs, flexible benefit packages, and stock ownership plans emphasize:
  • psychodynamic theory
  • intrinsic motivation
  • external incentives
  • internal needs
  1. The primacy effect is also known as:
  • selective perception
  • first-impression error
  • a stereotype
  • self-fulfilling prophecy
  1. Values reflected in the way individuals actually behave are called:
  • enacted values
  • behavioral values
  • observable values
  • enduring values
  1. The fit perspective is useful in explaining:
  • why managers make better decisions
  • long-term performance
  • how firms can adapt to environmental change
  • short-term performance
  1. The web like structures that contract some or all of their operating functions to other organisations and then coordinate their activities through managers and other employees at their headquarters are called
  • Virtual Organisation
  • Circle Organisation
  • Networked Organisation
  • Traditional Organisation
  1. According to the group development model, which of the following set of issues need to be addressed as part of a group's authority issues?
  • expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and management of power and influence
  • who is in charge, management of power and influence, and security
  • expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
  • who is in charge, management of power and influence, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
  1. In research on styles of conflict management, the ____ style was least effective.
  • collaborating
  • avoiding
  • competing
  • compromising
  1. The impoverished manager is one who:
  • emphasizes efficient production.
  • exerts just enough effort to avoid being fired.
  • creates a happy, comfortable work environment.
  • maintains the status quo.
  1. The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:
  • cohesiveness
  • mutual acceptance
  • control and sanctions
  • status structure
  1. Crude comments or sexual jokes and behaviors that disparage someone's sex or convey hostility is considered which type of sexual harassment?
  • sexual coercion
  • sexual abuse
  • exploitation
  • gender harassment
  1. Emotional intelligence (EI) relates to the ability to manage
  • conflict
  • Intelligence Quotient
  • conceptual skills
  • technical skills
  1. The Leadership and Strategy Council (LSC) is a feature of
  • Circle Organisation
  • Virtual Organisation
  • Traditional Organisation
  • Networked Organisation
  1. The establishment of new attitudes, values, and behaviors as the new status quo is consistent with what stage in Lewin's change model?
  • change
  • moving
  • unfreezing
  • refreezing
  1. An ethical theory that emphasizes the nature and characteristics of an act is:
  • consequence-based
  • cultural based
  • motive-based
  • rule-based
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of quality teams?
  • They emphasize the generation of ideas.
  • They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority.
  • They operate in parallel fashion to the organization's structure.
  • They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality.
  1. Which of the following statements is most correct?
  • Locus of control has little to do with ethical behavior.
  • Persons with an internal locus of control make more ethical decisions than others.
  • Other people control persons who are strong on internal locus of control.
  • Individuals with an internal locus of control are more likely to exhibit uncontrollable behavior.
  1. Group polarization results in:
  • group members driving decisions toward consensus
  • group members moving from extreme attitudes toward more moderate attitudes
  • the tendency for group discussion to produce shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members
  • the tendency for group members who were initially more cautious to become significantly less cautious
  1. The study of individual behavior and group dynamics in organizational settings describes the content of study in:
  • organization theory
  • organization design
  • organizational behavior
  • organizational development

Set – 2

  1. A "wild turkey' in the top management team is:
  • one who increases the homogeneity within the executive group
  • a member of the executive team that retards the executive teams performance
  • someone who is uncontrollable
  • a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of quality teams?
  • They operate in parallel fashion to the organization's structure.
  • They emphasize the generation of ideas.
  • They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority.
  • They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality
  1. Which of the following is considered a key benefit of diversity?
  • cohesiveness
  • less time in making decisions
  • less thinking that is considered critical
  • flexibility and adaptation
  1. According to the MBTI a successful top executive is likely to be a/an:
  • extrovert, sensor, thinker, and judger
  • introvert, sensor, thinker, and perceiver
  • introvert, intuitor, feeler, and perceiver
  • extrovert, intuitor, feeler, and judger
  1. Which of the following conditions would LEAST encourage political activity?
  • uncertainty
  • performance appraisal process
  • abundant resources
  • unclear goals
  1. The conflict that develops when a role behavior clashes with individual values is called:
  • intrarole
  • interrole
  • interpersonal
  • person-role
  1. The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:
  • status structure
  • control and sanctions
  • mutual acceptance
  • cohesiveness
  1. Increasing workforce diversity is likely to reduce ___ as a barrier to social perception.
  • first-impression error
  • selective perception
  • stereotyping
  • the primacy effect
  1. Denise and Teresa are two students in a course on organizational behavior . Denise outperforms Teresa on the first exam in OB, and Teresa convinces herself that Denise is not really a good person to compare herself to because Denise is a psychology major and Teresa is majoring in accounting . Which of the following is the best explanation for Teresa's reaction?
  • Teresa probably has an inflated generalized belief of her capabilities.
  • Teresa's high self-esteem is protecting her from this unfavorable comparison.
  • Teresa has an external locus of control.
  • Teresa is a low self-monitor.
  1. The dynamic process through which the emotions are transferred from one person to another is called
  • none of these
  • emotional adaptability
  • emotional contagion
  • Emotional Quotient
  1. The type of organizational commitment that is based on an individual's perceived obligation to remain in an organization is called:
  • affective commitment
  • attitudinal commitment
  • normative commitment
  • intentional commitment
  1. At what stage of group development is the leader 's role primarily one of recognition of the group's achievements?
  • performing
  • forming
  • norming
  • storming
  1. The primacy effect is also known as:
  • selective perception
  • first-impression error
  • a stereotype
  • self-fulfilling prophecy
  1. The close linkage of ____ to performance wider expectancy theory is crucial for enhancing motivation.
  • instrumentality
  • likelihood
  • valence
  • need satisfaction
  1. The two sets of social benefits available to team or group members includes:
  • recognition and integrated involvement
  • psychological intimacy and recognition
  • psychological intimacy and integrated involvement
  • integrated involvement and achievement
  1. A transnational organization is one where:
  • a prevalent ethnic viewpoint begins to be held strongly in the consciousness of managers
  • the global viewpoint supersedes national issues
  • the global and national interests are linked in an overriding perspective
  • an organization's nationality is held strongly in the consciousness of managers even though the organization competes on a global scale
  1. In the case of repeated failure wider expectancy theory, an employee may:
  • greatly increase input
  • increase effort when the likelihood of reward has dropped
  • raise outcome valence
  • reduce effort
  1. If a manager asks an employee to purchase a gift for his wife, the employee would think this request:
  • falls outside his zone of indifference
  • should be based on the manager's authority base
  • is in conflict with the employee’s value system
  • falls within his zone of indifference
  1. Authentic leaders are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
  • benevolence
  • optimism
  • resilience
  • high levels of hope
  1. According to the Protestant ethic, a person should work hard because hard work and prosperity would lead to a place in heaven. The organizational scholar who advanced the Protestant Ethic notion was:
  • Max Weber
  • Sigmund Freud
  • John Calvin
  • Adam Smith
  1. Instrumental values includes
  • honesty
  • all of these
  • ambition
  • self sufficiency
  1. The development of group cohesiveness is negatively influenced by:
  • external pressure
  • prestige of the group
  • group size when there are only five to eight members
  • internal competition
  1. Upper echelon theory argues that:
  • wild turkeys will have a detrimental effect on organizational performance
  • turnover at the top becomes a vicious cycle
  • characteristics of the top management team can predict organizational characteristics
  • executive turnover will usually result in declining organizational performance
  1. Group polarization results in:
  • group members moving from extreme attitudes toward more moderate attitudes
  • the tendency for group discussion to produce shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members
  • the tendency for group members who were initially more cautious to become significantly less cautious
  • group members driving decisions toward consensus
  1. A key understanding to the relationship between hygiene and motivation factors is:
  • they are additive
  • they are positively related
  • they are interdependent
  • they are independent
  1. The importance and value placed on a reward in expectancy theory is known as:
  • instrumentality
  • need satisfaction
  • likelihood
  • valence
  1. Corporations and business enterprises tend to subscribe to:
  • rule-based ethics
  • consequential ethics
  • cultural relativism
  • universal moralism
  1. An ethical theory that emphasizes the nature and characteristics of an act is:
  • motive-based
  • rule-based
  • cultural based
  • consequence-based
  1. Equity theory is a/an:
  • need approach to motivation
  • process approach to motivation
  • external approach to motivation
  • content motivation model
  1. The belief that performance is connected to rewards is known as:
  • probability or likelihood
  • expectancy
  • valence
  • instrumentality

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

FINC 521

 

Set – 1 (2019)

  1. Why depreciation has to be added back in the calculation of cash-flow as it is a ___ ?
  • manufacturing expense
  • Cash expense
  • Non-cash expense
  • non-operating expense
  1. Dividend payment linked to profits left-out after meeting the expansion needs is based on ____ theory/policy?
  • Signaling Theory
  • Residual payout policy
  • Stable Dividend policy
  • Constant pay-out policy
  1. Brexit, Greece Crises, Chinese Crises, Sub-Prime Crises are the examples of which of the following?
  • Systematic Risk
  • Unsystematic Risk
  • Total Risk
  • Specific Risk
  1. The cash flows forecasted at the end of projection period for capital budgeting decisions are known as___?
  • Initial Cash Flows
  • Operating Cash Flows
  • Terminal Cash Flows
  • Regular Cash Flows
  1. The underlying assumption in IRR method is that all the intermittent cashflows are reinvested at.
  • Cut-off rate
  • required rate of return
  • cost of capital
  • IRR
  1. If the credit period is increased for the customers of the company, operating cycle will___
  • reduce
  • increase
  • remain same
  • unaffected
  1. Calculate the expected return with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= 16%, p=.3 r=8%
  • 8
  • 18
  • 8
  • 35
  1. Cost of preference share is ___
  • Preference Dividend Rate
  • Pref Dividend/Pref. share market price
  • Both of the above
  • None of the above
  1. The internal rate of return generated by an fixed income investment, if held till maturity is known as
  • Current Yield
  • YTM
  • Yield Curve
  • Coupon rate
  1. Current year dividend of Sun Ltd is Rs 5 per share. Expected growth rate is 8% and market capitalization rate is 10%. Calculate the intrinsic value of stock?
  • 4
  • 5
  • 54
  • 270
  1. Market interest rate is 9%. A bond with 10% coupon will sell ____ par value?
  • Above
  • Below
  • at
  • None of the above
  1. Which of the following is the spontaneous source of financing the working capital requirements?
  • Commercial Paper
  • Accounts Payable
  • Bank Finance
  • All of the above
  1. Which of the following is ultimate objective of financial management?
  • Profit maximization
  • Shareholder's wealth maximization
  • Leverage Minimization
  • Funding maximization
  1. Sheela needs Rs 500000 at the end of 5 years. How much amount she should invest right now @ 10%. Present Value of 1 Rs at 10% for 5 years is .6209
  • 100000
  • 155225
  • 310450
  • 400000
  1. In case of capital budgeting decisions, the projects in which choice of one automatically excludes the another are known as ___ ?
  • Dependent Projects
  • Independent Projects
  • Mutually Exclusive Projects
  • Mutually Inclusive Projects
  1. For a firm, weight of equity & debt is 0.6 & 0.4 respectively and cost of equity is 15%, Cost of debt is 9%, tax rate is 30%. Calculate the WACC for the firm?
  • 126
  • 1152
  • 12
  • 084
  1. Moon Ltd invests Rs 800000 in a paper manufacturing plant This is expected to generate Rs 150000 every year for next seven years. Cost of capital for the project is 10%. PVAF for 7 years at 10% is 5.3349. Calculate the NPV of the project?
  • 800000
  • 800235
  • 235
  • -235
  1. Growth of the company can be expected to be higher when ______ is high?
  • pay-out ratio
  • distribution ratio
  • dividend rate
  • retention ratio
  1. If business risk of a company goes up than price of stock will.____ ?
  • decrease
  • increase
  • remain same
  • fluctuate
  1. Which of the following instrument is riskiest?
  • Shares
  • Preference Shares
  • Debentures
  • Fixed Deposit
  1. As per Bird in hand theory, high dividend pay-out is. _____ to low pay-out?
  • Preferred
  • not preferred
  • irrelevant for investor
  • None of the above
  1. 1/ 10,30 credit term means?
  • 1% discount
  • 1% discount
  • 1% discount for payment within 10 days
  • 1% discount for payment within 30 days

 

  1. Which of the following AAA debentures will have highest price if YTM is ___?
  • 07
  • 08
  • 075
  • 085
  1. Increased financial leverage gives rise to ____ volatile EPS?
  • more
  • less
  • non
  • None of the above
  1. Calculate the standard deviation with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= l6%, p=.3 r=8%
  • 76
  • 92
  • 21
  • 64
  1. Cost of debt is. ____ ?
  • Coupon rate
  • YTM (I-tax rate)
  • YTM
  • YTM/Bond Price
  1. Discounted payback period is considered an improvement over payback period because it considers. ____ ?
  • All cash-flows
  • Time Value of Money
  • Easy to understand
  • All of the above
  1. If credit sales is 100000, credit period is 30 days, calculate the average receivables?
  • 8219
  • 8333
  • 3333
  • 3288
  1. The risk which can be reduced by diversification is known as ____ ?
  • Systematic Risk
  • Unsystematic Risk
  • Total Risk
  • Market Risk
  1. A stock's average return in last 3 years were 12% and Standard deviation is 8%. Calculate the coefficient of variation?
  • 5
  • 33
  • 67
  • 6

 Set – 2 

  1. A company replaces an old machinery with salvage value of Rs I 00000 replaced by a machinery costing Rs 500000. The relevant cash flows for evaluation of this project is ___ ?
  • 100000
  • 500000
  • 400000
  • 600000
  1. In India, dividend is ____ in the hands of investors?
  • Taxable
  • not-taxable
  • Heavily taxable
  • None of the above
  1. Calculate the standard deviation with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= l6%, p=.3 r=8%
  • 76
  • 92
  • 21
  • 64
  1. Which of the following evaluation techniques for long-term investment decisions doesn't consider the time value of money?
  • NPV
  • IRR
  • Pay-Back Period
  • Profitability Index
  1. Calculate the expected return with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= 16%, p=.3 r=8%
  • 8
  • 18
  • 8
  • 35
  1. As per liquidity premium theory, interest rates on long term bonds will be than short term bonds?
  • Lower
  • Same
  • Higher
  • Fluctuating
  1. Increase in the frequency of compounding results into _______ maturity value.
  • Higher
  • Lower
  • Same
  • Fluctuating
  1. If the cost of capital of a project goes up then NPV will
  • decrease
  • increase
  • remain same
  • fluctuate
  1. Shyam deposits Rs 5000 every year for next 3 years at 6% semiannual compounding . Calculate the future value if investment? Future value annuity factor at 3% for 3years and 6 years is 3.0909 & 6.4684 respectively and at 6% for 3years and 6 years is 3.1836 & 6.9753 respectively.
  • 5
  • 16171
  • 15918
  • 25
  1. Discounted payback period is considered an improvement over payback period because it considers.
  • All cash-flows
  • Time Value of Money
  • Easy to understand
  • All of the above
  1. For a firm, weight of equity & debt is 0.6 & 0.4 respectively and cost of equity is 15%, Cost of debt is 9%, tax rate is 30%. Calculate the WACC for the firm?
  • 126
  • 1152
  • 12
  • 084
  1. As per :MM proposition without taxes, value of firm is ____ by changing the capital structure?
  • affected
  • not affected
  • increases
  • decreases
  1. Which of the following method is considered the best evaluation techniques for Long-term investment decisions?
  • NPV
  • IRR
  • Pay-Back Period
  • Profitability Index
  1. If proportion of debt is increased in capital structure, overall cost of capital will ____?
  • Decrease
  • increase
  • remain same
  • fluctuate
  1. The risk which can be reduced by diversification is known as_____ ?
  • Systematic Risk
  • Unsystematic Risk
  • Total Risk
  • Market Risk
  1. If business risk of a company goes up than price of stock will.
  • decrease
  • increase
  • remain same
  • fluctuate
  1. Moon Ltd invests Rs 800000 in a paper manufacturing plant This is expected to generate Rs 150000 every year for next seven years. Cost of capital for the project is 10%. PVAF for 7 years at 10% is 5.3349. Calculate the NPV of the project?
  • 800000
  • 800235
  • 235
  • -235
  1. In ABC classification of inventory, maximum attention has to be paid on _____ items?
  • A category
  • B category
  • C category
  • All of them
  1. The internal rate of return generated by an fixed income investment, if held till maturity is known as
  • Current Yield
  • YTM
  • Yield Curve
  • Coupon rate
  1. Dividend declared at 12% means that this % age will be applied on _____ ?
  • Issue Price
  • Market Price
  • Face Value
  • Profits
  1. When interest rates on long term bonds are higher than short term bonds, yield curve will be. ____ ?
  • upward slopping
  • downward slopping
  • flat
  • none of the above
  1. Dividend payment linked to profits left-out after meeting the expansion needs is based on ___ theory/policy?
  • Signaling Theory
  • Residual payout policy
  • Stable Dividend policy
  • Constant pay-out policy
  1. Sheela needs Rs 100000 at the end of each year in the next 5 years. How much amount she should invest now @ 10%. Present Value of annuity factor at 10% for 5 years is 3.7908
  • 28
  • 500000
  • 100000
  • 379080
  1. The cashflows invested in a project at t=O period is known as_________.
  • Initial Cash Flows
  • Operating Cash Flows
  • Terminal Cash Flows
  • Regular Cash Flows
  1. If growth rate of expected earnings goes up than price of stock will_____ .
  • decrease
  • increase
  • remain same
  • fluctuate
  1. In case of share buy-back, number of outstanding share will_____.
  • reduce
  • increase
  • remain same
  • unaffected
  1. A stock's average return in last 3 years were 12% and Standard deviation is 8%. Calculate the coefficient of variation?
  • 5
  • 33
  • 67
  • 6
  1. _____ method tells the period in which original investment in a project will be recovered.
  • NPV
  • IRR
  • Pay-Back Period
  • Profitability Index
  1. After the 2 for 1 share split number of shares will_____?
  • remain same
  • reduce
  • be half
  • double
  1. If credit sales is 100000, credit period is 30 days, calculate the average receivables?
  • 8219
  • 8333
  • 3333
  • 3288

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 FINC512

Part-1

 

1.Which of the following is an operating item?

  • Interest paid
  • salmy paid
  • share capital issued

2 . Accounting Standards are issued by which of the following entity, in India?

  • ICAI
  • SEBI
  • RBI
  • IFRS

3 . A business has paid the rent for the period Jan-March 2016 in June'2016, in which year financial statements this rent expenses will be recorded?

  • 2015
  • 2016
  • 2017
  • All of the above

4 . Both assets and owner's equity would be increased by __________________

  • capital brought in
  • Purchase of an asset on credit.
  • Payment of creditors.
  • Proprietors drawings.

5 . Who approves the financial statements of a company?

  • Auditors
  • Shareholders
  • Management
  • Board of Directors

6 . Which of the following can be categorized as discretionary Expense

  • Purchase
  • Salary
  • Repair & Maintenance
  • R&D Expense

7 . The Share Capital of a company is Rs 10 Cr divided in 10 Lac number of shares. Calculate the face value of share

  • Rs 100
  • Rs 1000
  • Rs10
  • Rs1

8 .  Which of the following statement shows the financial position of a business entity as on date?

  • Income Statement
  • Balance Sheet
  • Trial Balance
  • Cash Flow Statement

9 . Which of the following self-generated intangible asset can be recorded in books of account?

  • Goodwill
  • Technical Know-How
  • Software
  • All of the Above

10 . If manufacturing expenses are Rs 20000, interest expenses Rs 4000, cash sales is Rs 30000. Increase in inventory and debtors is Rs 5000 and Rs 7000 respectively. While increase in accounts payable is 9000. Calculate the cash flow from operations?

  • Rs 9000
  • Rs 3000
  • Rs 7000
  • Rs 12000

11 . Proceeds on the sale of fixed assets will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement, if indirect method is followed?

  • Operating Cash Flow
  • Financing Cash Flow
  • Investing Cash Flow
  • None of the above

12 . XYZ Ltd paid Salaries of Rs 200000 in the month of March'2016. Journalize the transaction.

  • Cash A/c Debited to Salary
  • Salary A/c Debited to Cash
  • Employees A/c Debited to Cash
  • Employees A/c Debited to Salary

13 . Security Premium Reserve is an example of  ________________

  • Revenue Reserve
  • Capital Reserve
  • Reserve Capital
  • Revaluation Reserve

 

14 . Which of the following can be categorized as Revenue?

  • Sale of goods
  • Sale of Old Furniture
  • Dividend Received
  • All of the above

15 . In which of the following books, separate account is maintained for each item?

  • Ledger
  • Accounting Equation
  • Trial Balance
  • Journal

16 . Credit sales for the year is Rs 100000 and closing debtors are Rs10000. Calculate the collection period of the firms?

  • 10 days
  • 5 days
  • 39 days
  • None of the above

 

17 . Capital contributed by owners is recorded as liability as per which of the following concept?

  • Monetary Unit
  • Economic Entity
  • Going Concern
  • Dual Aspect

 

18 . ABC Ltd Purchased Machinery on 1st October 2017 at cost price of Rs 5 Lacs. There is no salvage value and estimated useful life of Machinery is 5 years. How much depreciation should be charged for Year 2017-18?

  • 1 Lac
  • Zero
  • 50000
  • None of these

19 . A new firm commenced business on 1st January 20016 and purchased goods costing Rs. 90,000 during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on freight inwards. At the end of the year the cost of goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by the firm?

  • Rs 36000
  • Rs 30000
  • Rs 42000
  • Rs 38000

20 . Loss on the sale of Fixed Assets will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement, if indirect method is followed?

  • Operating Cash Flow
  • Financing Cash Flow
  • Investing Cash Flow
  • None of the above

21 . Which of the following is liquidity ratio?

  • Debt to Equity Ratio
  • Return on Investment
  • Total Asset Turnover Ratio
  • Current Ratio

 

22 . In which of the following books, transactions are first time recorded?

  • Ledger
  • Accounting Equation
  • Trial Balance
  • Journal

23 . Operating expenses of Moon Ltd are Rs 18000, Interest expenses Rs 5000, Tax paid Rs 4000. If Sales is Rs 35000 then calculate the Net Profit Margin?

  • 2285
  • 7714
  • 51
  • 0 0.0657

24 . Purchase of machinery against issue of shares will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement?

  • Operating Cash Flow
  • Financing Cash Flow
  • Investing Cash Flow
  • None of the above

25 . A credit sale of goods to Mohan should be debited to

  • Sales account
  • Mohan account
  • Goods account
  • Purchase account

 

26 . Which of the following is an financing item?

  • Interest paid
  • Salary paid
  • Dividend received
  • Share capital issued

 

27 . While preparing cash flow statements, the repayments of a loan during the year should be included under the heading of

  • Operating Cash Flow
  • Financing Cash Flow
  • Investing Cash Flow
  • None of the above

 

28 . The balance of cash account indicates______________

  • Net income for the period
  • Net loss for the period
  • Net cash on hand
  • Net worth of the business

 

29 . Which of the following statement shows the Net Profit/Loss earned by a business entity?

Income Statement

  • Balance Sheet
  • Trial Balance
  • Cash Flow Statement

30 . Every accounting transaction must at least affect -_________accounts?

  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • Four

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Part - 2

 

 

Q1

While preparing cash flow statements. The repayments of a loan during the year should included under the heading of

 

  • Operating cash flow
  • Financing cash flow
  • Investing cash flow
  • None of the above

 

Q2

Which of the following is basic accounting equation?

 

  • Capital – liabilities = assets
  • Assets + liabilities = capital
  • Assets + capital = liabilities
  • Liabilities + capital = assets

 

Q3

Operating expenses of Moon Ltd are Rs 18000, Interest expenses Rs 5000, Tax paid Rs 4000. If Sales is Rs 35000 then calculate the Net Profit Margin?

 

  • 2285
  • 7714
  • 51
  • 0 0.0657

 

Q4

Decline in the value of intangible assets in a given year is known as____

  • Depreciation
  • Amortization
  • Depletion
  • All of the above

 

 

Q5

Which of the following self-generated intangible asset can be recorded in books of account?

 

  • Goodwill
  • Technical Know-How
  • Software
  • All of the Above

Q6

Which of the following is an Operating item?

 

  • Interest paid
  • Salary paid
  • Dividend received
  • Share capital issued

 

Q7

A business has paid rent for the period Jan-march 2016 in June 2016, in which year financial statements this rent expenses will be recorded?

  • 2015
  • 2016
  • 2017
  • All of the above

 

 

 

 

Q8

 Which of the following is a financing item?

 

  • Interest paid
  • Salary paid
  • Dividend received
  • Share capital issued

 

 

Q9

On 1st April 2017 P Ltd sells 100000 shares of dabur India Ltd to Q Ltd at Rs 400 per share (market price on that day) with an agreement to repurchase the same at Rs 412 per share on 31 Dec 2017. How the transaction should be presented in financial statements of P Ltd

 

  • Sale of investment
  • Sale of shares
  • Borrowings
  • Investment

 

Q10

Which of the following can be categorised as Discretionary Expenses

 

  • Purchase
  • Salary
  • Repair and maintenance
  • R&D Expense

 

 

Q11

If total liabilities decreased by rs20000 and stockholders’ equity increase by rs5,000 during of time, then total assets must change by what amount and direction during the same time period?

 

  • Rs 15000 increase
  • Es 15000 decrease
  • Rs 25000 increase
  • Rs 25000 decrease

 

Q12 

A credit sale of goods to Mohan should be debited to

 

  • Sales account
  • Mohan account
  • Goods account
  • Purchase account

 

Q13

A credit sale of goods to Mohan should be credited to

 

  • Sales account
  • Mohan account
  • Goods account
  • Purchase account

 

Q14

There was a fire in M Ltd Godown. It resulted into loss of Rs 5 Cr goods however the insurance company accepted the claim of Rs 4.5 Cr only. This will result in _____ in equity by Rs____.

ANS…

  • Increase,4.5 Cr
  • Decrease, 0.5 Cr
  • Increase, 0.5 Cr
  • Decrease, 5 Cr

Q15

In which of the following statement, final balances of all the accounts are prepared in the form of list ?

 

  • Ledger
  • Accounting Equation
  • Trial Balance
  • Journal

 

Q16

Which of the following is a Current Assets ?

 

  • Furniture
  • Computers
  • Debtor
  • Car

 

Q17

In which of the following firm structure compliance cost is maximum

 

  • Sole proprietorship
  • Ltd liability partnership
  • Pvt ltd company
  • Public ltd company

 

Q18

The share capital of a company is Rs 10Cr divided in 10 lac number of shares. Calculate the face value of share

 

  • Rs 100
  • Rs 1000
  • Rs 10
  • Rs 1

 

Q19

 In which of the following books, transactions are first time recorded?

 

  • Ledger
  • Accounting Equation
  • Trial Balance
  • Journal

 

Q20

Advance from Customers is an example of

 

  • Asset
  • Liability
  • Income
  • Expense

 

Q21

Accounting Standards are issued by which of the following entity, in India?

 

  • ICAI
  • SEBI
  • RBI
  • IFRS

 

Q22

Both assets and owner’s equity would be increased by _______________

 

  • Capital brought in
  • Purchase of an asset on credit
  • Payments of creditors
  • Proprietors drawings

 

Q23 . Which of the following statement shows the Net Profit/Loss earned by a business entity?

 

  • Income Statement
  • Balance Sheet
  • Trial Balance
  • Cash Flow Statement

 

 

 

 

Q24

A new firm commenced business on 1st January 20016 and purchased goods costing Rs. 90,000 during the year. A sum of Rs. 6,000 was spent on freight inwards. At the end of the year the cost of goods still unsold was Rs. 12,000. Sales during the year Rs.1,20,000. What is the gross profit earned by firm?

  • 36000
  • 30000
  • 42000
  • 38000

 

Q25

 Credit sales for the year is Rs 100000 and closing debtors are Rs10000. Calculate the collection period of the firms?

 

  • 10 days
  • 5 days
  • 39 days
  • None of the above

 

Q26

In which of the following firm structure liability of owners is unlimited

 

  • Sole proprietorship
  • Ltd liability partnership
  • Pvt ltd company
  • Public ltd company

 

Q27

Higher debt- equity ratio indicates

 

  • High operating risk
  • Low operating risk
  • High financial risk
  • Low financial risk

 

Q28

ABC Ltd Purchased Machinery on 1st October 2017 at cost price of Rs 5 Lacs. There is no salvage value and estimated useful life of Machinery is 5 years. How much depreciation should be charged for Year 2017-18?

 

  • 1 Lac
  • Zero
  • 50000
  • None of these

 

Q29

Wages paid to workers must be debited to_________ account

 

  • Wages
  • Machinery
  • Factory Expenses
  • Office Expenses

 

Q30

Which of the following can be categorized as revenue?

 

  • Sale of goods
  • Sale of old furniture
  • Dividend received
  • All of above

 

 

 

 

 

 

                                 ECOC514 SET 1 DEC 2018

Test -1

 

1.Demand curve slopes downward due to

-income effect

-substitution effect

-diminishing marginal utility

-all of the above

 

2.An increase in the price of a good normally increases the

-demand for its substitutes

-supply of compliments

-purchasing power of consumer incomes

-purchasing power of consumer divide incomes

 

3.An isoquant is

-least cost combination

-a locus of input combination that give the same level of output

-a locus of input combination that give different level of output

-a locus of product combination that give the same level of satisfaction

 

4.If planned spending exceeds planned output, the result is

-a reduction in GDP

-unintended inventory increases

-unintended inventory reduction

-an  increase in government purchases

5.Production of an additional unit of output by the firm gives rise to

-Explicit cost

-implicit cost

-incremental cost

-marginal cost

 

6.If future price changes were perfectly anticipated by both borrowers and lenders ,what would happen to the real interest rate in the future if the price level changed?

-it would increase

-it would decrease

-it would not change

-it would decrease by the amount of the price increase

 

7.Negative cross-price elasticity of demand indicates that

-the product is an inferior good

-the product is a necessity

-the product is a luxury

-the two products are compliments

 

8.when the first stage of law of variable proportions begins to operate the TVC curve

-falls at an increasing rate

-rises at an increasing rate

-falls at a decreasing rate

-rises at a decreasing rate

 

9.In determining comparative advantage, cost is measured in terms of

-foreign currency

-opportunities forgone

-domestic currency

-gold only

 

10.in actability

-each country consumption possibilities are the same as its production possibilities

-equilibrium is attained with the maximum gains from specialization and trade

-equilibrium is attained with the maximum amount of international trade

-a nation is governed by an individual with absolute authority

 

11.if an imperfectly competitive firm is selling its 100th unit of output for $35,its marginal revenue

-will be greater than $35

-will be less than $35

-will also be $35

-may be either greater or less than $35

 

12.the equation for calculation of  gross domestic product through expenditure approach is

-Y=C+I+G+(X-M)

-Y=C+I+G+(X+M)

-Y=C+I+G(X-M)

-Y=C+I+(X-M)

 

13.price discrimination refers to

-the differences between the prices a purely competitive seller and a purely monopolistic seller would charge

-the selling of a given product at different prices that do not reflect cost differences

-any price above that which is equal to minimum average total cost

-selling a given product for different prices at two different points in time

 

14.As a result of an increased deficit associated with discretionary fiscal policy

-both the interest rate and real output fall

-both the interest rate and nominal output rise

-the interest rate falls and real output rises

-the interest rate rises and real output falls

 

15.A consumer maximizes utility when the marginal utilities of all goods

-having positive money prices that are equal to zero

-are equal

-are maximized

-are exactly proportional to their market prices

 

16.when prices increases at a such speed that the value of money falls drastically is called as

-headline inflation

-core inflation

-hyperinflation

-stagflation

 

17.If the supply of a product increases, then

-more will be purchased at the same price

-the price of a product must have declined

-demand for the good must have increased

-producers offer less for sale at each possible price

 

18.The money demand curve describes how the quantity of money demanded varies with

-nominal GDP

-the interest rate

-real GDP

-the price level

 

19.A purely competitive firm is in short run equilibrium and its MC exceeds its AC.it can be conclude that

-firms will leave the industry in the long run

-the firm is realizing an economic profit

-the firm is realizing a loss

-this is an increasing cost industry

 

20.Which of the following will not increase when net taxes decrease ?

-saving

-disposable income

-consumption

-government expenditure

 

21.GDP price index is calculated by the formula

-Nominal GDP/Real GDP*100

-Real GDP /nominal GDP*100

-Nominal GDP/real GDP

-Real GDP /Nominal GDP

 

22.Cross elasticity between a battery and a car will be

-positive

-negative

-Unitary

-Zero

 

23.The firm is a price taker under

-perfect competition

-oligopoly

-monopolistic competition

-All of the above

 

24.Gross domestic product is

-the sum of money value of all intermediate goods and services produced with in the domestic territories of a country during an accounting year

-the aggregate final goods and services produced during an accounting year

The aggregate intermediate goods and services produced during an accounting year

-the sum of money value of all final goods and services produced with in the domestic territories of a country during an accounting year

 

25.Short run cost curves behaviour is explained by

-laws of returns

-economies of scale

-law of variable proportion

-law of increasing returns

 

26.If total revenue falls ,when price falls ,the demand of the product  will be

-elastic

-unitary elastic

-inelastic

-perfectly elastic

 

27.For a perfectly competitive firm the average revenue

-coincides with total revenue

-is lower than total revenue

-is equal to marginal revenue

-is higher than marginal revenue

 

28.In the long run, a monopolistic competitor

-incurs losses

-makes economic profit

-reaps normal profit

-any of the above

 

29.The percentage change in the demand for film divided by the percentage change in the price of cameras indicates

-the cross -price elasticity of demand between film and cameras

-the cross-price elasticity of demand for photographs

-the price elasticity of demand for film

-the price elasticity of demand for cameras

 

30.Marginal utility is defined as the

-average amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product

-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product

-additional satisfaction gained from consuming one more unit of a product

-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product divided by the number of units consumed.

 

Test – 2

 

                                                          IMT                                       

                                        ECOC514  DECEMBER 2018

 

 

1.A government -imposed price above floor above the market price of milk would increase consumer expenditure on milk only if

-demand is elastic

-supply is inelastic

-demand falls

-demand is inelastic

 

2.the equilibrium interest rate is determined by

-both the supply of and demand for money

-demand for money

-supply of money

-reserve bank of india

 

3.Gross domestic product can be calculated by adding---------- in an accounting year

-adding income earned by all factor inputs

-expenditure approach

-adding output produced by all sectors

-any of these method

 

4.which of the following is true concerning the relationship between the marginal propensity to consume and the consumption function?

-the larger the MPC the higher the level of autonomous consumption

-the larger the MPC the steeper the consumption function

-the larger the MPC the larger the MPS

-the smaller the MPC the steeper the consumption function

 

5.If a pure monopolist is producing a level of output in excess of the MR=MC output

-it will be the interest of the firm and the society to reduce output

-it will be the interest of the firm and society to increase output

-it will be in the interest of the firm but not necessarily of society to reduce output

-the firm may or may not be maximizing profits

 

6.An arbitrageur in foreign exchange is a person who

-buys foreign currency, hopping to profit by selling it at a higher exchange rate of some later date

-earns illegal profit by manipulating foreign exchange

-causes differences in exchange rates in different geographic market

-simultaneously buys large amount of currency in one market and sells it in another market

 

7.If future price changes were perfectly anticipated by both borrowers and lenders, what would happen to the real interest rate in the future if the price level changed?

-it would increase

-it would decrease

-it would not change

-it would decrease by the amount of the price increase

 

8.A typical situation when stagnation and inflation coexist is called as an

-Disinflation

-Hyperinflation

-Stagnation

-Headline inflation

 

9.Point of tangency between isoquant and is cost denotes

-producer equilibrium

-least cost combination

-optical factor combination

-all of the above

 

 

10.price are measured in india by

-consumer price index

-wholesale price index

-consumer price index and wholesale price index

-None of these

 

11.When economist say that people act as rational decision makers, that means

-they gather all relevant information before making their purchases

-once a pattern of behaviour has been established  people tend to become set in their ways

-people respond in predictable ways to changes in costs and benefits

-people rarely make errors when they are permitted to make transactions

 

12.production of an additional units of output by the firm gives rise to

-Explicit cost

-implicit cost

-incremental cost

-marginal cost

 

13.A firm earns maximum profit when

-MC=MR

-MC=ATC

-Total revenue equals total cost

-TR is greater than TC by the larger amount

 

14.infaltuon rates differ in metropolitan regions MOSTLY because of

-differences in retail prices

-differences in housing prices

-transportation cost

-all of these

 

15.Marginal utility is defined as the

-Average amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product

-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product

-additional satisfaction gained from consuming more unit of a product

-total amount of satisfaction gained from consuming a product divided by the number of units consumed

 

16.In choosing between burger and shirts, consumer increase their purchases of each until

-the marginal utility from the last rupee spent on one is the same as on the another

-the marginal utility from the last rupee of burger is the same as from the last shirt

-the total utility from one is the same as from the other

-none of the above

 

17.A movement on the demand curve will take place when there is

-a change in own price of the product

-a change in price of a substitute

-a change in consumer preferences

-an increase in per capita income

 

18.A firm is in equilibrium when

-marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost

-marginal revenue is more than marginal cost

-marginal cost of the firm is rising

-both conditions 1 and 2 are fulfilled

 

19.the law of diminishing marginal utility states that

-the total utility falls continuously additional unit of a product

-the marginal utility falls continuously with consumption additional unit of a product

-the average utility falls continuously with consumption additional  unit of a product

-the marginal utility falls continuously with consumption total unit of a product

 

20.An increase in the money supply leads to a(n)

-decline in interest rates ,an increase in investment and an increase in aggregate demand

-decline in interest rate a decrease in investment and an increase in aggregate demand

-decline in interest rate an increase in investment and a decline in aggregate demand

-increase in interest rate an increase in investment and an increase in aggregate demand

 

21.If the economy experiences a contractionary gap and the RBI stimulates the economy

-The money supply is decreasing because the RBI makes open market sales

-The money supply is increasing because the RBI makes open market purchases

-The money supply is increasing because the RBI prints more money

-The money supply is decreasing because the RBI hoards money

 

22.when prices increase at a such speed that the value of money falls drastically is called as

-Headline inflation

-Core inflation

-Hyperinflation

-Stagflation

 

23.If marginal product of labour is lesser than average product of labour then average product of labour is

-Constant

-Decreasing

-Increasing

-Maximum

 

24.Cartel is

-a form of overt collusion

-a form of tacit collusion

-used to explain price rigidity

-non collusive oligopoly

 

25.To close a contractionary gap using fiscal policy, the government can

-Increase government spending by the size of the gap

-decrease government spending by the size of the gap

-increase government spending by less than the size of the gap

-decrease government spending by more than the size of the gap

 

26.The firm is a price taker under

-Perfect competition

-Oligopoly

-monopolistic competition

-all of these

 

27.Demand curve slopes downward due to

-income effect

-substitution effect

-diminishing marginal utility

-all of the above

28.Demand pull inflation is due to

-increase in money supply

-increase in purchasing power

-increasing in income with the population

-all of these

 

29.which of the following will not increase when net taxes decrease?

-saving

-disposable income

-consumption

-government expenditure

 

30.Total fixed cost includes cost of

-plant and machinery

-plant and machinery and depreciation cost of plant

-routine maintenance of plant

-plant and machinery and routine maintenance of